Apr 29, | Science
Attached is the lab procedures and questions/datas to complete the lab report form
I.
Procedures : briefly summarize the experimental procedure as if you are describing it to a
nonscientist. Explain what you did and why ( do not list the steps)
DATA & OBSERVATIONS
II.
Calculations and results
Show all calculation with units and report results rounded to the correct number of significant
figures
Write the balanced equation : ___________________________________
Part 1
Actual yield of Carbon Dioxide Generated Calculation
Theoretical Carbon dioxide calculation for each reactant. Circle the limiting reactant
% error calculation
Limiting Reactant compound
Excess Reagent compound
Excess Reagent Calculation
Part 2
Actual yield of Carbon Dioxide Generated Calculation
Theoretical Carbon dioxide calculation for each reactant. Circle the limiting reactant
% error calculation
Limiting Reactant compound
Excess Reagent compound
Excess Reagent Calculation
Calculated results :
Part 1
Actual Yield of CO2 (g)
Theoretical Yield of CO2(g)
if NaHCO3 mass is used
Theoretical Yield of CO2(g)
if H3C6H5O7 mass is used
Part 2
Name of Limiting Reactant
(LR)
Result of Confirmation test
(Was LR prediction correct)
Percent error of Actual to
Theoretical Mass of CO2
Excess Reactant (g)
Discussions & Conclusions
State the limiting reactant and the excess mass of the remaining reactant for 1 successful
trail for part 1 and 2
Discuss the percent error between the theoretical yield your actual yield. Was your actual
yield higher or lower than your theoretical?
include three sources of error that could have led to this discrepancy. DO NOT write ” human
error”. If you know you made an error, you should have repeated the experiment! instead, give
specific examples of unavoidable error inherent in the procedure and measurements. Keep in
mind that losses of reactants or solution will actually lead to the error that you think you have
produced more carbon dioxide than you really did. What would this do to your % yield
One of the indications of Alka-Seltzer is that it will neutralize stomach acid. When the tablet is
dissolved in water before consumption, which reactant do you think is the limiting reactant in the
actual medication. Explain your answer
List at least 2 types of reactions ( i.e precipitation) that the reaction in this lab can be categorized
as and define each type
General Chemistry!
Data and Observations (1 pt):
Part 1
Part 2
(Record ALL numbers displayed on the balance)
Dry beaker (g)
49.127
49.128 g
Water (9)
9.21g
9.036g
NaHCO3 (9)
2. Allg
Weigh boat and H3C6H507, citric acid (g)
3.125g
“Empty/Dirty” weigh boat after addition of citric acid
1.5639
2.379
1.240g
1.139
61.7449
60.7999
H3C6H507, citric acid (g) Subtract the 2 lines above.
1. 210g
1. glig
62.6599
Total before the reaction
(add beaker + water + both reactants)
Gle
Total mass after the reaction
61.2669
Mass CO2 “Actual Yield”
(total before – total after)
1.3958
0.945g
Observations:
66 Page
General Chemistry
Calculations and Results: (3 pts)
Show all calculations with units and report results rounded to the correct number of
significant figures in the table.
Write the balanced equation:
Part 1
Actual Yield of Carbon Dioxide Generated Calculation
Theoretical carbon dioxide calculation for EACH reactant. Circle the limiting reactant.
% Error Calculation
Limiting Reactant Compound
Excess Reagent Compound
Excess Reagent Calculation
Part 2
Actual Yield of Carbon Dioxide Generated Calculation
67 Page
General Chemistry
Theoretical carbon dioxide calculation for EACH reactant. Circle the limiting reactant.
% Error Calculation
Limiting Reactant Compound
Excess Reagent Compound
Excess Reagent Calculation
Calculated Results:
Part 1
Part 2
Actual Yield of CO2 (g)
Theoretical Yield of CO2 (9)
if NaHCO3 mass is used
Theoretical Yield of CO2 (g)
if H3C6H507 mass is used
Name of
Limiting Reactant (LR)
Result of Confirmation Test
(was LR prediction correct?)
Percent Error of Actual to
Theoretical mass of CO2
Excess reactant (g)
68 Page
General Chemistry |
Procedure
Part 1
1. Clean and dry a 50 mL beaker. Bring the beaker, your notebook and a
graduated cylinder with 10ml purified water to the balance with you. Record the
mass of the empty beaker in your NB.
2. Tare the beaker and add 10 mL purified water. Record the mass of the water.
3. Tare the beaker and the water and add between 1 and 2 grams of sodium
bicarbonate to the beaker. Record the mass in your NB.
4. Tare the empty balance. Place a weigh boat on the pan and measure between
1 and 2 grams of citric acid. Record the mass of the total of both together)
weigh boat AND the citric acid in your NB.
5. Slowly add the citric acid to the beaker.
6. Swirl gently until the reaction is complete and record your observations.
7. Tare the SAME empty balance and record the mass of the “empty/dirty” weigh
boat. Subtract to determine the exact amount of citric acid that was added to
the beaker.
8. While waiting for the reaction to complete, in your NB, calculate which reactant
was the limiting reactant based on YOUR reactant masses. Calculate the
amount (g) of excess reactant that remains.
9. Swirl to remove bubbles and record the final mass of the beaker and its
contents.
10.DO NOT DISCARD the contents.
11. Devise an experiment to test your conclusion, (which reactant is limiting) using
only the available materials and your completed reaction.
12. Record this “confirmation procedure” in your NB. Show and get approval from
your instructor before using the procedure.
13. Perform your confirmation experiment and record your observations.
14. Before moving on, check your calculations with your instructor and repeat Part 1
with similar masses if the results of your confirmation experiment differ from
what you expected.
62 Page
istry
Part 2
15. Discard your reaction for Part 1 down the drain. Clean and DRY the beaker.
16. From your calculated results in part 1, select masses for an additional trial that
will make the other reactant limiting (not the reactant that was limiting in Part 1).
Be careful, if you choose too small of an amount of one reactant you will not
generate enough CO2 to detect a change in final mass.
17. Calculate the mass of carbon dioxide you expect to generate. This is your
theoretical yield.
18. Perform the experiment and record your data.
19. Record the mass of carbon dioxide produced as “actual yield.” This is the
difference between the beaker plus reactants and the beaker plus products.
20. Repeat all calculations to determine the limiting reactant and the mass of the
excess reactant that will remain following the reaction.
21.Perform and record observations for the confirmation procedure. (Will it be the
same? Be careful!)
22. Clean and return your glassware. All solutions may go down the drain.
23. Calculate the percent error between your actual yield of CO2 and the theoretical
yield for both trials.
% error = lactual – theoreticall * 100%
theoretical
24. NEATLY transcribe all of your data and calculations to the report form.
Complete the other portions of the report form with complete sentences.
63 Page
General Chemistry |
Procedure
Part 1
1. Clean and dry a 50 mL beaker. Bring the beaker, your notebook and a
graduated cylinder with 10ml purified water to the balance with you. Record the
mass of the empty beaker in your NB.
2. Tare the beaker and add 10 mL purified water. Record the mass of the water.
3. Tare the beaker and the water and add between 1 and 2 grams of sodium
bicarbonate to the beaker. Record the mass in your NB.
4. Tare the empty balance. Place a weigh boat on the pan and measure between
1 and 2 grams of citric acid. Record the mass of the total of both together)
weigh boat AND the citric acid in your NB.
5. Slowly add the citric acid to the beaker.
6. Swirl gently until the reaction is complete and record your observations.
7. Tare the SAME empty balance and record the mass of the “empty/dirty” weigh
boat. Subtract to determine the exact amount of citric acid that was added to
the beaker.
8. While waiting for the reaction to complete, in your NB, calculate which reactant
was the limiting reactant based on YOUR reactant masses. Calculate the
amount (g) of excess reactant that remains.
9. Swirl to remove bubbles and record the final mass of the beaker and its
contents.
10.DO NOT DISCARD the contents.
11. Devise an experiment to test your conclusion, (which reactant is limiting) using
only the available materials and your completed reaction.
12. Record this “confirmation procedure” in your NB. Show and get approval from
your instructor before using the procedure.
13. Perform your confirmation experiment and record your observations.
14. Before moving on, check your calculations with your instructor and repeat Part 1
with similar masses if the results of your confirmation experiment differ from
what you expected.
62 Page
istry
Part 2
15. Discard your reaction for Part 1 down the drain. Clean and DRY the beaker.
16. From your calculated results in part 1, select masses for an additional trial that
will make the other reactant limiting (not the reactant that was limiting in Part 1).
Be careful, if you choose too small of an amount of one reactant you will not
generate enough CO2 to detect a change in final mass.
17. Calculate the mass of carbon dioxide you expect to generate. This is your
theoretical yield.
18. Perform the experiment and record your data.
19. Record the mass of carbon dioxide produced as “actual yield.” This is the
difference between the beaker plus reactants and the beaker plus products.
20. Repeat all calculations to determine the limiting reactant and the mass of the
excess reactant that will remain following the reaction.
21.Perform and record observations for the confirmation procedure. (Will it be the
same? Be careful!)
22. Clean and return your glassware. All solutions may go down the drain.
23. Calculate the percent error between your actual yield of CO2 and the theoretical
yield for both trials.
% error = lactual – theoreticall * 100%
theoretical
24. NEATLY transcribe all of your data and calculations to the report form.
Complete the other portions of the report form with complete sentences.
63 Page
al Chemistry
Reaction Stoichiometry – Determining a
Limiting Reactant
Alka-Seltzer tablets contain sodium bicarbonate, aspirin, and citric acid. When the tablet
is dissolved in water the sodium bicarbonate reacts with the acids to form carbonic acid
which quickly decomposes into carbon dioxide and water.
In most chemical reactions, the reactants are combined in amounts that are not a
perfect ratio to all fully react to products. Therefore, one reactant “runs out” first and the
other reactants are in excess. These are called limiting reactant (or reagent) reactions.
Objective:
In this experiment, you will combine sodium bicarbonate and citric acid in varying
amounts and calculate which reactant is fully consumed and stops the reaction. In
other words, you will determine which one is the limiting reactant. You will also
determine the amount of excess reactant remaining and devise an experiment to test
your results.
The UNBALANCED reaction is given below.
NaHCO3(aq) +
H3C6H507(aq) → H2O(1) +
CO2(g) +
Na3C6H507(aq)
Since the product carbon dioxide is a gas and we will be working in an “open system,” it
will be lost to the atmosphere during the reaction. Therefore the difference in mass of
everything before the reaction and after the reaction will equal to the mass of the lost
carbon dioxide. [beaker and reactants – beaker and products = CO2 lost] You will use
this mass, the balanced equation and stoichiometry to determine the amount of each
reactant that actually reacted. Comparing these results to the masses physically
measured will enable you to determine the limiting reactant as well as the mass of the
excess reactant.
60 Page
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Apr 29, | Science
2 unit evaluations biology 12th grade. Document attached.
Name
_________________________________
I.D. Number
_______________________
Unit 3 Evaluation
Biology 1
(SCIH 025 061)
This evaluation will cover the lessons in this unit. It is open book, meaning you can use your textbook, syllabus, and other course materials. You will need to understand, analyze, and apply the information you have learned in order to answer the questions correctly. To submit the evaluation, follow the directions provided.
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
_____
1. A white mouse whose parents are both white produces only brown offspring when
mated with a brown mouse. The white mouse is most probably
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
homozygous recessive.
heterozygous.
homozygous dominant.
haploid.
2. In chickens, rose comb (R) is dominant to single comb (r). A homozygous rose-combed
rooster is mated with a single-combed hen. All of the chicks in the F1 generation were
kept together as a group for several years. They were allowed to mate only within their
own group. What is the expected phenotype of the F2 chicks?
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
100% rose comb
75% rose comb and 25% single comb
100% single comb
50% rose comb and 50% single comb
3. In mink, brown fur color is dominant to silver-blue fur color. If a homozygous brown
mink is mated with a silver-blue mink and 8 offspring are produced, how many would
be expected to be silver-blue?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
0
3
6
8
SCIH 025
_____ 4. This diagram shows a diploid cell with two
homologous pairs of chromosomes. Due to
independent assortment, what are the possible
allelic combinations that could be found in
gametes produced by meiosis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
Yy, Ss, SS, and YY
SY, sY, Sy, and sy
SsYy and SYsy
Sy and sY only
5. Using the following diagram, which process would result in the formation of
chromosome C from chromosomes A and B?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
asexual reproduction
independent assortment
crossing over
segregation
SCIH 025
_____
6. If inflated pods are I and constricted pods
are c, what is the genotype of first filial
generation (F1) in this diagram?
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
II
Ic
cc
I
7. Using the following Punnett square, what fraction of this cross will be recessive for both
traits?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
1/2
1/4
1/8
1/16
SCIH 025
Use the following diagram to answer questions 8 and 9.
_____
8. In this diagram, which set of chromatids illustrates the result of a single crossover of
the homologous chromosomes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
A
B
C
D
9. In this diagram, which set of chromatids will result if each chromatid crossed with a
nonsister chromatid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
B
C
D
_____ 10. Crossing over would most likely occur during which stage of the cell cycle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
when DNA is being replicated
when homologous chromosomes are bound as pairs
when centromeres are separated
when cytokinesis begins
_____ 11. What is the role of the spindle fibers?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
to join homologous chromosomes together
to store nucleotides prior to DNA synthesis
to initiate the formation of the nuclear membrane
to move chromosomes in the cell
SCIH 025
_____ 12. Suppose an animal is heterozygous AaBb, and the traits are not linked. When meiosis
occurs, what is the total number of possible combinations of gametes that can be
made for these traits?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
4
6
8
_____ 13. A true-breeding tall pea plant (T) is crossed with a true-breeding short pea plant (t),
and all the offspring are tall. What is the most likely genotype of the offspring assuming
a single-gene trait?
a.
b.
c.
d.
tt
Tt
TT
either TT or tt
_____ 14. In mice, black is dominant to white color and color is determined by a single gene. Two
black mice are crossed. They produce two black offspring and one white offspring. If
the white offspring is crossed with one of its parents, what percent of the offspring
would you expect to be white?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0
25
50
75
_____ 15. Mendel crossed a true-breeding plant that produced green seeds with a true-breeding
plant that produced yellow seeds to produce an F1 generation. The entire F1
generation produced yellow seeds. Then he crossed the F1 offspring with each other to
produce the F2 generation. From the F2 generation, he counted 6022 yellow seeds.
Which of these is the most likely estimate of the number of green seeds he collected
from the F2 generation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0
2000
6000
18000
_____ 16. In which of the following situations are the phenotypes of F2 offspring expected to
follow the ratio of 9:3:3:1?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
a monohybrid cross for two unlinked traits
a monohybrid cross for two closely linked traits
a dihybrid cross for two unlinked traits
a dihybrid cross for two closely linked traits
SCIH 025
_____ 17. If two heterozygous individuals are crossed, what percent of their offspring are also
expected to be heterozygous?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0
50
75
100
_____ 18. Two rabbits that were homozygous for both coat and eye color were crossed. The
following are the phenotypes of their F2 generation. Which most strongly suggest that
the genes for eye color and coat color are linked?
a. 22 brown coat brown eye, 7 brown coat blue eye, 9 white coat brown eye,
4 white coat blue eye
b. 62 brown coat brown eye, 21 brown coat blue eye, 18 white coat brown eye,
7 white coat blue eye
c. 92 brown coat brown eye, 35 brown coat blue eye, 31 white coat brown eye,
11 white coat blue eye
d. 95 brown coat brown eye, 12 brown coat blue eye, 16 white coat brown eye,
30 white coat blue eye
_____ 19. At which stage of meiosis do a haploid number of chromosomes line up at the equator
of the cell?
a.
b.
c.
d.
anaphase I
metaphase I
anaphase II
metaphase II
Use the following pedigree to answer questions 20–21.
Unit 3 Evaluation
SCIH 025
_____ 20. Hemophilia is a recessive genetic disorder. According to the pedigree given, if
individual III-2 marries a person with the same genotype as individual I-1, what is the
chance that one of their children will be afflicted with hemophilia?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0%
25%
50%
75%
_____ 21. According to the pedigree given, what type of inheritance pattern does the trait
represented by the shaded symbols illustrate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
incomplete dominance
multiple alleles
codominance
sex-linked traits
_____ 22. When roan cattle are mated, 25% of the offspring are red, 50% are roan, and 25% are
white. Roan cattle are heterozygous for coat color. Upon examination, it can be seen
that the coat of a roan cow consists of both red and white hairs. This trait is one that is
controlled by
a.
b.
c.
d.
multiple alleles.
codominant alleles.
sex-linked genes.
polygenic inheritance.
_____ 23. The disease characterized by the absence of melanin is
a.
b.
c.
d.
cystic fibrosis.
albinism.
galactosemia.
Tay-Sachs.
_____ 24. Under what circumstances will a recessive trait be expressed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
One parent passes on the recessive allele.
A recessive allele is passed on by both parents.
There is a mutation in the dominant gene.
The individual is heterozygous for the trait.
_____ 25. When a homozygous male animal with black fur is crossed with a homozygous female
with white fur, they have offspring with gray fur. What type of inheritance does this
represent?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
dosage compensation
incomplete dominance
multiple alleles
sex-linked
SCIH 025
_____ 26. Examine the following graph which illustrates the
frequency in types of skin pigmentation in humans.
Another human trait that would show a similar
inheritance pattern and frequency of distribution is
a.
b.
c.
d.
height.
blood type.
number of fingers and toes.
incidence of cystic fibrosis.
_____ 27. According to the following pedigree, what is the chance that individual A will be afflicted
with Huntington’s disease?
a.
b.
c.
d.
25%
50%
75%
100%
_____ 28. Cell division in which the sister chromatids fail to separate properly is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
multiple alleles.
nondisjunction.
nonsynapsis.
trisomy.
_____ 29. When a person’s cells have an extra copy of chromosome 21, it usually results in
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
Down syndrome.
Turner’s syndrome.
Tay-Sachs disease.
Klinefelter’s syndrome.
SCIH 025
_____ 30. An individual with the chromosomal genotype XYY would be
a.
b.
c.
d.
a nearly normal female.
a female with Turner’s syndrome.
a nearly normal male.
a male with Klinefelter’s syndrome.
_____ 31. You are a medical researcher trying to create a new antibiotic that will interfere with
bacterial DNA replication without harming the eukaryotic host. You have found several
chemicals that prevent DNA from unwinding and separating. Which of the following
would be the best chemical to use?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a chemical that blocks uracil use
a chemical that cannot pass into the cell nucleus
a chemical that is neutralized by cytoplasm
a chemical that works only in the presence of histones
_____ 32. The small segments of the lagging DNA strand are called
a.
b.
c.
d.
helicase.
nucleotides.
Okazaki fragments.
Hershey bits.
_____ 33. The base-pairing rule for binding purines and pyrimidines in the DNA molecule is
a.
b.
c.
d.
C-U and A-G.
A-G and C-T.
A-T and C-G.
C-A and G-T.
_____ 34. Which shows the basic chain of events in all organisms for reading and expressing
genes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
DNA → RNA→protein
RNA →DNA→protein
mRNA→rRNA→tRNA
RNA processing→transcription→translation
_____ 35. The process through which the mRNA is synthesized from the template DNA is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
RNA processing.
translation.
protein synthesis.
transcription.
SCIH 025
_____ 36. What type of mutation has occurred
in this diagram?
a.
b.
c.
d.
substitution
frameshift
lethal
insertion
_____ 37. What is the purpose of producing a line by inbreeding?
a.
b.
c.
d.
reducing the number of genes
reducing dominant traits
eliminating recessive traits
eliminating hidden variation
_____ 38. In a test cross, if one parent’s genotype is homozygous dominant,
a.
b.
c.
d.
all of the offspring will have the dominant phenotype.
3/4 of the offspring will have the dominant phenotype.
1/2 of the offspring will have the dominant phenotype.
1/4 of the offspring will have the dominant phenotype.
_____ 39. Which outcome is possible using genetic engineering, but not using selective
breeding?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a sheep with wool longer than wool produced by any other sheep
corn that produces one large corn cob per plant
a bacterium that produces human insulin
a hairless variety of cow
_____ 40. Why have viruses been used in gene therapy in humans?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
They inject DNA into cells.
They are passed from one person to another.
They are disease-causing factors.
They contain restriction endonucleases.
SCIH 025
Matching
Match the terms given with their definitions.
a. codominance
b. carrier
c. gene
d. fertilization
e. phenotype
_____ 41. the process by which one haploid gamete combines with another haploid gamete
_____ 42. the outward expression or observable characteristic of an allele pair
_____ 43. a complex inheritance pattern in which both alleles are expressed in the heterozygous
condition
_____ 44. an individual who is heterozygous for a recessive disorder
_____ 45. the DNA segments that control the production of proteins
Match the terms given with their definitions.
a. double helix
b. transcription
c. mutagen
d. RNA
e. plasmids
_____ 46. the synthesis of mRNA from DNA
_____ 47. certain chemicals and radiation that can damage DNA
_____ 48. a nucleic acid that is similar to DNA
_____ 49. a twisted ladder shape formed by two stands of nucleotides twisted around each other
_____ 50. small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecules that occur naturally in bacteria and
yeast cells
Unit 3 Evaluation
SCIH 025
Carefully check your answers on this evaluation and make any corrections you feel are necessary. When you are satisfied that you have answered the questions to the best of your ability, transfer your answers to an answer sheet. Please refer to the information sheet that came
with your course materials.
Unit 3 Evaluation
SCIH 025
Name
_________________________________
I.D. Number
_______________________
Unit 4 Evaluation
Biology 1
(SCIH 025 061)
This evaluation will cover the lessons in this unit. It is open book, meaning you can use your
textbook, syllabus, and other course materials. You will need to understand, analyze, and apply the
information you have learned in order to answer the questions correctly. To submit the evaluation,
follow the directions provided.
Multiple Choice
Select the response that best completes the statement or answers the question.
_____
1. What was the source of the original atmosphere of early Earth?
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
light elements from space
volcanoes
meteorite impacts
outgassing from rocks
2. What is the difference between a cast fossil and a mold fossil?
a. They are two terms for the same kind of fossil.
b. A cast fossil is an impression in rock, but a mold fossil is an impression that was
filled in with minerals.
c. A mold fossil is just an impression in rock; a cast fossil is an impression that was
filled in with minerals.
d. A mold fossil is preserved original tissue, and a cast fossil is petrified.
_____
3. Imagine you are a paleontologist who finds a well-preserved dinosaur skeleton. Careful
excavation of the site reveals apparently undisturbed sediments and a thin layer of
iridium 12 cm below the specimen. Infer the significance of this find. Which of the
following options most closely corresponds to your conclusion?
a. The find is significant because the dinosaur skeleton is so well preserved.
b. The find is significant because it indicates that dinosaur bones may be a source of
iridium.
c. The find is significant because it represents a dinosaur that may have lived after
the Cretaceous period.
d. The find is not very significant since well-preserved dinosaur skeletons are not
particularly rare.
Unit 4 Evaluation
SCIH 025
_____
4. There is good evidence that a meteor hit Earth about 65 million years ago. Which of
the following events that scientists think were triggered by the impact could have
caused the simultaneous global extinctions of multiple species, including all the
dinosaurs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
The meteor was large enough to trigger powerful earthquakes.
The impact itself triggered global tsunamis.
Volcanic eruptions were set off by the impact.
Atmospheric debris changed global climates for months or years after the impact.
5. Which of the following effects on the evolution of life on Earth was most likely a
consequence of the breakup of the supercontinent Pangea?
a. Populations of animals separated by the breakup of Pangea probably adapted to
new environments and evolved into new species.
b. Continental drift could rapidly change local climates, driving species to extinction.
c. Populations of animals separated by the breakup of Pangea probably remained
exactly the same over time.
d. Continental drift could rapidly change local climates, triggering the evolution of new
species.
_____
6. Which of the following is an accurate statement of the differences between
spontaneous generation and biogenesis?
a. Spontaneous generation is the idea that life can only come from life, while
biogenesis is the outdated notion that animals arise from nonliving elements of
their environment.
b. Spontaneous generation and biogenesis are two names for the same principle
concerning the origin of life.
c. Spontaneous generation is the idea that life can come from nonliving components,
while biogenesis is the more modern concept that life can only arise from another
living organism.
d. The concept of spontaneous generation recognizes that species generate offspring
when environmental conditions are favorable, while biogenesis is the idea that life
was created in a single event and has been unchanged ever since.
_____
7. Which option places the likely events in the origin of life in the correct order?
a. abiotic synthesis of amino acids and other organic molecules / synthesis of proteins
/ development of a genetic code / evolution of cells
b. abiotic synthesis of amino acids and other organic molecules / synthesis of proteins
/ evolution of cells / development of a genetic code
c. synthesis of proteins / abiotic synthesis of amino acids and other organic
molecules / development of a genetic code / evolution of cells
d. abiotic synthesis of amino acids and other organic molecules / development of a
genetic code / synthesis of proteins / evolution of cells
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_____
8. What evidence is there that modern archaebacteria may be most like the hypothesized
earliest cells on Earth?
a. Both archaebacteria and early cells share morphological similarities, including a
membrane-bound nucleus.
b. Photosynthesis allows both archaebacteria and the earliest cells to harness energy
from the Sun.
c. Archaebacteria thrive in extreme environments of intense heat or pressure;
microfossils suggest that early life forms lived in volcanic environments.
d. Archaebacteria can only survive in warm, shallow waters similar to the primordial
seas in which cells evolved on early Earth.
_____
9. Banded red rock formations dating from about 1.8 billion years ago were formed from
oxygen reacting with free iron ions. Eventually these rocks were no longer being
formed, and the oxygen began to accumulate in the atmosphere. Integrate this
information and your knowledge of conditions on early Earth. What logical conclusions
can you draw?
a. Oxygen could not accumulate in the atmosphere until most of the free iron ions
were used up.
b. Oxygen had to have been present in the atmosphere before 1.8 billion years ago.
c. Oxygen can be released by banded iron formations.
d. Early life could not evolve before oxygen was present to sustain it.
_____ 10. What implication does the endosymbiont theory have for phylogeny?
a. The origin of eukaryotes is much earlier than previously believed.
b. The phylogenetic tree includes places where the branches separate and come
back together.
c. Eukaryotes and prokaryotes had independent origins, so there are really two
phylogenetic trees.
d. It will be impossible to trace the phylogenetic relationships of eukaryotes.
_____ 11. During phagocytosis of one cell by another, the larger cell engulfs the smaller cell by
enclosing it in a part of its plasma membrane which then pinches off so the cell is then
within the larger cell. Given this may have been the process that brought bacterial cells
into the ancestors of eukaryotic cells as endosymbionts, what structural characteristic
might be expected in mitochondria and chloroplasts?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 4 Evaluation
amoeboid locomotion
flagella or cilia
a double membrane
a nucleus
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_____ 12. What was the significance of the Cambrian explosion to the evolution of life on Earth?
a.
b.
c.
d.
It was a mass extinction during which nearly 90% of marine species were lost.
It was a rapid diversification of the ancestors of most major animal groups.
It was caused by tectonic instability, resulting in an eruption of multiple volcanoes.
It was the event in which life began, but no fossils survive and little is known.
_____ 13. One hypothesis argues that clay played a role in the increasing complexity of organic
molecules in the pre-life Earth environment. What role does the hypothesis suggest?
a.
b.
c.
d.
acting as a cell membrane
assisting replication of molecules
filtering out key molecule components
stabilizing complex molecules
_____ 14. What effects of continental drift would have most likely have resulted in a new adaptive
radiation following the Permian extinction?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a breakup of Pangea into several land masses
the movement of the entire supercontinent farther to the south
formation of land bridges connecting islands to the mainland
the movement of the entire supercontinent farther to the north
_____ 15. Which of the following is an accurate comparison of derived traits and ancestral traits?
a. Derived traits result from artificial selection; ancestral traits result from natural
selection.
b. Derived traits appear in species; ancestral traits appear in genera or higher taxa.
c. Derived traits are primitive; ancestral traits are contemporary.
d. Derived traits are recent features; ancestral traits are more primitive features.
_____ 16. A population diverges and becomes reproductively isolated. Which of the
following is the best description of that phenomenon?
a. speciation
b. bottleneck
c. postzygotic isolation
d. sexual selection
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_____ 17. Some primate skeletons were located in a cave in association with these things: a
variety of tools, the charred bones of some animals they had cooked and eaten, and
numerous paintings on the walls. Carbon-14 dating techniques determined that the
bones and other artifacts were about 35,000 years old. The skeletal remains probably
belonged to
a.
b.
c.
d.
A. afarensis.
Homo habilis.
Cro-Magnon.
Homo erectus.
_____ 18. Evidence that Homo erectus was more intelligent than its predecessors would include
a.
b.
c.
d.
a small cranial capacity as indicated by their skeletal remains.
involved messages they wrote on cave walls.
signs of agriculture and tilled fields.
tools such as hand axes that have been found near their fire pits.
_____ 19. In which group would you classify primates that are small, often (but not always)
nocturnal, with large eyes and ears, and dependent on their sense of smell?
a.
b.
c.
d.
haplorhines
strepsirrhines
New World monkeys
anthropoids
_____ 20. Which of these primates is classified as a strepsirrhine and may produce toxic
secretions?
a.
b.
c.
d.
loris
lemur
marmoset
spider monkey
_____ 21. Altiatlasius, an early fossil primate, most closely resembles which of the following
animals?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 4 Evaluation
gorilla
lemur
tree shrew
bushbaby
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_____ 22. Which of these primates is native to the Americas?
a.
b.
c.
d.
bonobos
gibbons
macaques
tamarins
_____ 23. Which of the following provides the best description for the fossil primate
Aegyptopithecus?
a.
b.
c.
d.
small, nocturnal insect eater with grasping hands and feet
the “dawn ape,” about the size of a domestic cat
a lemurlike primate with a very small brain
an early hominoid, possibly ancestral to humans
_____ 24. How do hominoids and hominins differ?
a. Hominoids include only humans and their recent ancestors, while hominins include
humans plus anthropoids.
b. Hominoids include monkeys and apes, while hominins include only humans.
c. Hominoids include all nonmonkey anthropoids, while hominins include only
humans and their extinct relatives.
d. Hominoids include humans and their extinct ancestors, while hominins include all
nonmonkey anthropoids.
_____ 25. How does the fossil Australopithecus called “Lucy” contribute to our understanding of
hominin evolution?
a. This fossil indicates that large brains evolved before bipedalism.
b. This fossil supports the hypothesis that large brains evolved while our ancestors
were still arboreal.
c. This fossil supports the hypothesis that early hominids lived on the savanna.
d. This fossil indicates that bipedalism evolved before large brains.
_____ 26. What features distinguish Australopithecus africanus from A. boseii and A. robustus,
which are often classified in the genus Paranthropus?
a. Australopithecus africanus walked upright, but members of the genus
Paranthropus did not.
b. Paranthropus walked upright, but members of the genus Australopithecus did not.
c. Australopithecus africanus were robust, but Paranthropus were slender.
d. Members of the genus Australopithecus africanus were slender but Paranthropus
were robust.
Unit 4 Evaluation
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_____ 27. In what significant way was Homo habilis different from all members of the genus
Australopithecus?
a. Homo habilis had the first human nose, but nostrils of Australopithecus opened to
the front.
b. Homo habilis walked upright, unlike Australopithecus.
c. Homo habilis had a larger brain than any Australopithecus.
d. Only Homo habilis migrated to Asia and Europe.
_____ 28. Analyze the following sequences. In which list are species arranged chronologically in
the order of their appearance on Earth from earliest to most recent?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Homo erectus, Homo habilis, Homo ergaster, Australopithecus africanus
Australopithecus africanus, Homo ergaster, Homo habilis, Homo erectus
Homo habilis, Australopithecus africanus, Homo ergaster, Homo erectus
Australopithecus africanus, Homo habilis, Homo ergaster, Homo erectus
_____ 29. Mitochondrial DNA from Africans was recently discovered to be more variable than
mitochondrial DNA from Europeans. Which of the following ideas is supported by this
finding?
a.
b.
c.
d.
the Out-of-Africa hypothesis
the multiregional theory
the hominoid biogeography hypothesis
the ancestral neanderthal theory
_____ 30. A large and heavily muscled hominin with a brain larger than that of modern humans
went extinct about 30,000 years ago. How was this hominin classified?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Australopithecus africanus
Paranthropus robustus
Homo neanderthalensis
Homo erectus
_____ 31. Which species are believed to have overlapped in time?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 4 Evaluation
Homo ergaster and Homo neanderthalensis
Homo erectus and Homo floresiensis
Homo sapiens and Homo rudolfensis
Homo sapiens and Homo neanderthalensis
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_____ 32. Which statement best summarizes the “mitochondrial Eve” idea?
a. All people alive today are descended from one female Homo sapiens who lived in
Africa about 200,000 years ago.
b. All people alive today are descended from one female Homo erectus who lived in
Africa 400,000 years ago.
c. All people alive today are descended from one female Homo neanderthalensis who
lived in Europe 300,000 years ago.
d. All people alive today are descended from one female Homo habilis who lived in
Africa 1.4 million years ago.
_____ 33. Which of the following is the most specific taxon?
a.
b.
c.
d.
genus
kingdom
phylum
species
_____ 34. Which of the following are prokaryotes that contain peptidoglycan in their cell walls?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Archaebacteria
Eubacteria
Fungi
Protists
_____ 35. Which domain includes organisms that are called extremophiles?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Animalia
Archaea
Bacteria
Eukarya
_____ 36. Which of the following Kingdoms is not included in the Domain Eukarya?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Bacteria
Fungi
Plantae
Protista
_____ 37. Which characteristic distinguishes organisms in the Fungi kingdom from those in the
Plantae kingdom?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 4 Evaluation
the presence of membrane-bound organelles
the presence of membrane-bound nucleus
the chitin in their cell walls
multicellular
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_____ 38. What are the Domain and Kingdom of a paramecium?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Domain Bacteria, Kingdom Eubacteria
Domain Archaea, Kingdom Plantae
Domain Eukarya, Kingdom Protista
Domain Archaea, Kingdom Protista
_____ 39. Animals that are multicellular, have no cell walls, and are heterotropic belong to which
kingdom?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Kingdom Eubacteria
Kingdom Plantae
Kingdom Protista
Kingdom Animalia
_____ 40. There are more than 250,000 identified species in Kingdom
a.
b.
c.
d.
Archaea.
Plantae.
Eubacteria.
Protista.
Matching
Match the terms given with their definitions.
a. evolution
b. half-life
c. spontaneous generation
d. ancestral traits
e. era
_____ 41. the amount of time it takes for half the original radioactive isotope to decay
_____ 42. a large division in the geologic time scale that is smaller than an eon
_____ 43. the idea that life arises from nonlife
_____ 44. the cumulative changes in groups of organisms through time
_____ 45. more primitive features, such as teeth and tails, that appear in ancestral forms
Unit 4 Evaluation
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Match the terms given with their definitions.
a. genus
b. phylogeny
c. Archaea
d. Neanderthal
e. Cro-Magnon
_____ 46. a distinct human species that evolved exclusively in Europe and Asia about 200,000
years ago
_____ 47. a group of species that are closely related and share a common ancestor
_____ 48. the evolutionary history of a species
_____ 49. early modern humans that represent the beginning of historic hunter-gatherer societies
_____ 50. both kingdom and domain—thought to be more ancient than bacteria and more closely
related to our eukaryotic ancestors
Carefully check your answers on this evaluation and make any corrections you feel are
necessary. When you are satisfied that you have answered the questions to the best of your
ability, transfer your answers to an answer sheet. Please refer to the information sheet that
came with your course materials.
Unit 4 Evaluation
SCIH 025
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