NSG 6020 Midterm Exam Study Guide

NSG 6020 Midterm Exam Study Guide
NSG 6020 Midterm Study Guide
 

1.
For which of the following patients would a comprehensive health history be appropriate?

A)
A new patient with the chief complaint of “I sprained my ankle”

B)
An established patient with the chief complaint of “I have an upper respiratory infection”

C)
A new patient with the chief complaint of “I am here to establish care”

D)
A new patient with the chief complaint of “I cut my hand” NSG 6020 Midterm Exam Study Guide

 
ORDER A CUSTOM-WRITTEN, PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

2.
Is the following information subjective or objective?
Mr. M. has shortness of breath that has persisted for the past 10 days; it is worse with activity and relieved by rest.

A)
Subjective

B)
Objective

 
 

3.
Is the following information subjective or objective?
Mr. M. has a respiratory rate of 32 and a pulse rate of 120.

A)
Subjective

B)
Objective

 
 

4.
The following information is recorded in the health history: “Patient denies chest pain, palpitations, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.”
Which category does it belong to?

A)
Chief complaint

B)
Present illness

C)
Personal and social history

D)
Review of systems

 
 

5.
A patient presents for evaluation of a sharp, aching chest pain which increases with breathing. Which anatomic area would you localize the symptom to?

A)
Musculoskeletal

B)
Reproductive

C)
Urinary

D)
Endocrine

 
 

6.
A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is new, located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient denies a rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history significant for rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic processes would be the most correct?

A)
Infectious

B)
Inflammatory

C)
Hematologic

D)
Traumatic

 
 

7.
A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of a 3-week history of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and nonproductive cough. Which is the most likely pathologic process?

A)
Infection

B)
Inflammation

C)
Allergic

D)
Vascular

 
 

8.
You are seeing an elderly man with multiple complaints.  He has chronic arthritis, pain from an old war injury, and headaches.  Today he complains of these pains, as well as dull chest pain under his sternum.  What would the order of priority be for your problem list?

A)
Arthritis, war injury pain, headaches, chest pain

B)
War injury pain, arthritis, headaches, chest pain

C)
Headaches, arthritis, war injury pain, chest pain

D)
Chest pain, headaches, arthritis, war injury pain

 
 

9.
Suzanne, a 25 year old, comes to your clinic to establish care. You are the student preparing to go into the examination room to interview her. Which of the following is the most logical sequence for the patient–provider interview?

A)
Establish the agenda, negotiate a plan, establish rapport, and invite the patient’s story.

B)
Invite the patient’s story, negotiate a plan, establish the agenda, and establish rapport.

C)
Greet the patient, establish rapport, invite the patient’s story, establish the agenda, expand and clarify the patient’s story, and negotiate a plan.

D)
Negotiate a plan, establish an agenda, invite the patient’s story, and establish rapport.

 
 

10.
Alexandra is a 28-year-old editor who presents to the clinic with abdominal pain. The pain is a dull ache, located in the right upper quadrant, that she rates as a 3 at the least and an 8 at the worst. The pain started a few weeks ago, it lasts for 2 to 3 hours at a time, it comes and goes, and it seems to be worse a couple of hours after eating. She has noticed that it starts after eating greasy foods, so she has cut down on these as much as she can. Initially it occurred once a week, but now it is occurring every other day. Nothing makes it better. From this description, which of the seven attributes of a symptom has been omitted?

A)
Setting in which the symptom occurs

B)
Associated manifestations

C)
Quality

D)
Timing

 
 

11.
A 23-year-old graduate student comes to your clinic for evaluation of a urethral discharge. As the provider, you need to get a sexual history. Which one of the following questions is inappropriate for eliciting the information?

A)
Are you sexually active?

B)
When was the last time you had intimate physical contact with someone, and did that contact include sexual intercourse?

C)
Do you have sex with men, women, or both?

D)
How many sexual partners have you had in the last 6 months?

 
 

12.
On a very busy day in the office, Mrs. Donelan, who is 81 years old, comes for her usual visit for her blood pressure.  She is on a low-dose diuretic chronically and denies any side effects.  Her blood pressure is 118/78 today, which is well-controlled.  As you are writing her script, she mentions that it is hard not having her husband Bill around anymore. What would you do next?

A)
Hand her the script and make sure she has a 3-month follow-up appointment.

B)
Make sure she understands the script.

C)
Ask why Bill is not there.

D)
Explain that you will have more time at the next visit to discuss this.

 
 

13.
When you enter your patient’s examination room, his wife is waiting there with him.  Which of the following is most appropriate?

A)
Ask if it’s okay to carry out the visit with both people in the room.

B)
Carry on as you would ordinarily.  The permission is implied because his wife is in the room with him.

C)
Ask his wife to leave the room for reasons of confidentiality.

D)
First ask his wife what she thinks is going on.

 
 

14.
You are performing a young woman’s first pelvic examination.  You make sure to tell her verbally what is coming next and what to expect.   Then you carry out each maneuver of the examination.  You let her know at the outset that if she needs a break or wants to stop, this is possible.  You ask several times during the examination, “How are you doing, Brittney?”  What are you accomplishing with these techniques?

A)
Increasing the patient’s sense of control

B)
Increasing the patient’s trust in you as a caregiver

C)
Decreasing her sense of vulnerability

D)
All of the above

 
 

15.
A 15-year-old high school sophomore and her mother come to your clinic because the mother is concerned about her daughter’s weight. You measure her daughter’s height and weight and obtain a BMI of 19.5 kg/m2. Based on this information, which of the following is appropriate?

A)
Refer the patient to a nutritionist and a psychologist because the patient is anorexic.

B)
Reassure the mother that this is a normal body weight.

C)
Give the patient information about exercise because the patient is obese.

D)
Give the patient information concerning reduction of fat and cholesterol in her diet because she is obese.

 
 

16.
A 25-year-old radio announcer comes to the clinic for an annual examination. His BMI is 26.0 kg/m2. He is concerned about his weight. Based on this information, what is appropriate counsel for the patient during the visit?

A)
Refer the patient to a nutritionist because he is anorexic.

B)
Reassure the patient that he has a normal body weight.

C)
Give the patient information about reduction of fat, cholesterol, and calories because he is overweight.

D)
Give the patient information about reduction of fat and cholesterol because he is obese.

 
 

17.
Common or concerning symptoms to inquire about in the General Survey and vital signs include all of the following except:

A)
Changes in weight

B)
Fatigue and weakness

C)
Cough

D)
Fever and chills

 
 

18.
You are beginning the examination of a patient. All of the following areas are important to observe as part of the General Survey except:

A)
Level of consciousness

B)
Signs of distress

C)
Dress, grooming, and personal hygiene

D)
Blood pressure

 
 

19.
Mrs. Lenzo weighs herself every day with a very accurate balance-type scale.  She has noticed that over the past 2 days she has gained 4 pounds.  How would you best explain this?

A)
Attribute this to some overeating at the holidays.

B)
Attribute this to wearing different clothing.

C)
Attribute this to body fluid.

D)
Attribute this to instrument inaccuracy.

 
 

20.
You are seeing an older patient who has not had medical care for many years.  Her vital signs taken by your office staff are: T 37.2, HR 78, BP 118/92, and RR 14, and she denies pain.  You notice that she has some hypertensive changes in her retinas and you find mild proteinuria on a urine test in your office.  You expected the BP to be higher.  She is not on any medications.  What do you think is causing this BP reading, which doesn’t correlate with the other findings?

A)
It is caused by an “auscultatory gap.”

B)
It is caused by a cuff size error.

C)
It is caused by the patient’s emotional state.

D)
It is caused by resolution of the process which caused her retinopathy and kidney problems.

 
 

21.
Mr. Garcia comes to your office for a rash on his chest associated with a burning pain.  Even a light touch causes this burning sensation to worsen.  On examination, you note a rash with small blisters (vesicles) on a background of reddened skin.  The rash overlies an entire rib on his right side.  What type of pain is this?

A)
Idiopathic pain

B)
Neuropathic pain

C)
Nociceptive or somatic pain

D)
Psychogenic pain

 
 

22.
A 50-year-old body builder is upset by a letter of denial from his life insurance company.  He is very lean but has gained 2 pounds over the past 6 months.  You personally performed his health assessment and found no problems whatsoever.  He says he is classified as “high risk” because of obesity.  What should you do next?

A)
Explain that even small amounts of weight gain can classify you as obese.

B)
Place him on a high-protein, low-fat diet.

C)
Advise him to increase his aerobic exercise for calorie burning.

D)
Measure his waist.

 
 

23.
A 32-year-old white female comes to your clinic, complaining of overwhelming sadness. She says for the past 2 months she has had crying episodes, difficulty sleeping, and problems with overeating. She says she used to go out with her friends from work but now she just wants to go home and be by herself. She also thinks that her work productivity has been dropping because she just is too tired to care or concentrate. She denies any feelings of guilt or any suicidal ideation. She states that she has never felt this way in the past. She denies any recent illness or injuries. Her past medical history consists of an appendectomy when she was a teenager; otherwise, she has been healthy. She is single and works as a clerk in a medical office. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drug use. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father has had a history of mental illness. On examination you see a woman appearing her stated age who seems quite sad. Her facial expression does not change while you talk to her and she makes little eye contact. She speaks so softly you cannot always understand her. Her thought processes and content seem unremarkable.
What type of mood disorder do you think she has?

A)
Dysthymic disorder

B)
Manic (bipolar) disorder

C)
Major depressive episode

 
 

24.
A 23-year-old ticket agent is brought in by her husband because he is concerned about her recent behavior. He states that for the last 2 weeks she has been completely out of control. He says that she hasn’t showered in days, stays awake most of the night cleaning their apartment, and has run up over $1,000 on their credit cards. While he is talking, the patient interrupts him frequently and declares this is all untrue and she has never been so happy and fulfilled in her whole life. She speaks very quickly, changing the subject often. After a longer than normal interview you find out she has had no recent illnesses or injuries. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Both her parents are healthy but the husband has heard rumors about an aunt with similar symptoms. She and her husband have no children. She smokes one pack of cigarettes a day (although she has been chain-smoking in the last 2 weeks), drinks four to six drinks a week, and smokes marijuana occasionally. On examination she is very loud and outspoken. Her physical examination is unremarkable.
Which mood disorder does she most likely have?

A)
Major depressive episode

B)
Manic episode

C)
Dysthymic disorder

 
 

25.
Adam is a very successful 15-year-old student and athlete.  His mother brings him in today because he no longer studies, works out, or sees his friends.  This has gone on for a month and a half.  When you speak with him alone in the room, he states it “would be better if he were not here.”  What would you do next?

A)
Tell him that he has a very promising career in anything he chooses and soon he will feel better.

B)
Tell him that he needs an antidepressant and it will take about 4 weeks to work.

C)
Speak with his mother about getting him together more with his friends.

D)
Assess his suicide risk.

 
 

26.
You are speaking to an 8th grade class about health prevention and are preparing to discuss the ABCDEs of melanoma. Which of the following descriptions correctly defines the ABCDEs?

A)
A = actinic; B = basal cell; C = color changes, especially blue; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution

B)
A = asymmetry; B = irregular borders; C = color changes, especially blue; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution

C)
A = actinic; B = irregular borders; C = keratoses; D = dystrophic nails; E = evolution

D)
A = asymmetry; B = regular borders; C = color changes, especially orange; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution

 
 

27.
You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25-year-old teacher. You have previously elicited that she came to the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. You strongly suspect that she has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a patient with hypothyroidism?

A)
Moist and smooth

B)
Moist and rough

C)
Dry and smooth

D)
Dry and rough

 
 

28.
A mother brings her 11 month old to you because her mother-in-law and others have told her that her baby is jaundiced.  She is eating and growing well and performing the developmental milestones she should for her age.  On examination you indeed notice a yellow tone to her skin from head to toe.  Her sclerae are white.  To which area should your next questions be related?

A)
Diet

B)
Family history of liver diseases

C)
Family history of blood diseases

D)
Ethnicity of the child

 
 

29.
You are examining an unconscious patient from another region and notice Beau’s lines, a transverse groove across all of her nails, about 1 cm from the proximal nail fold.  What would you do next?

A)
Conclude this is caused by a cultural practice.

B)
Conclude this finding is most likely secondary to trauma.

C)
Look for information from family and records regarding any problems which occurred 3 months ago.

D)
Ask about dietary intake.

 
 

30.
Jacob, a 33-year-old construction worker, complains of a “lump on his back” over his scapula.  It has been there for about a year and is getting larger.  He says his wife has been able to squeeze out a cheesy-textured substance on occasion.  He worries this may be cancer.  When gently pinched from the side, a prominent dimple forms in the middle of the mass. What is most likely?

A)
An enlarged lymph node

B)
A sebaceous cyst

C)
An actinic keratosis

D)
A malignant lesion

 
 

31.
A young man comes to you with an extremely pruritic rash over his knees and elbows which has come and gone for several years.  It seems to be worse in the winter and improves with some sun exposure.  On examination, you notice scabbing and crusting with some silvery scale, and you are observant enough to notice small “pits” in his nails.  What would account for these findings?

A)
Eczema

B)
Pityriasis rosea

C)
Psoriasis

D)
Tinea infection

 
 

32.
Mrs. Anderson presents with an itchy rash which is raised and appears and disappears  in various locations.  Each lesion lasts for many minutes.  What most likely accounts for this rash?

A)
Insect bites

B)
Urticaria, or hives

C)
Psoriasis

D)
Purpura

 
 

33.
Ms. Whiting is a 68 year old who comes in for her usual follow-up visit. You notice a few flat red and purple lesions, about 6 centimeters in diameter, on the ulnar aspect of her forearms but nowhere else.  She doesn’t mention them. They are tender when you examine them.  What should you do?

A)
Conclude that these are lesions she has had for a long time.

B)
Wait for her to mention them before asking further questions.

C)
Ask how she acquired them.

D)
Conduct the visit as usual for the patient.

 
 

34.
Which of the following is a symptom involving the eye?

A)
Scotomas

B)
Tinnitus

C)
Dysphagia

D)
Rhinorrhea

 
 

35.
A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid problem. On observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A)
Ptosis

B)
Exophthalmos

C)
Ectropion

D)
Epicanthus

 
 

36.
A 12-year-old presents to the clinic with his father for evaluation of a painful lump in the left eye. It started this morning. He denies any trauma or injury. There is no visual disturbance. Upon physical examination, there is a red raised area at the margin of the eyelid that is tender to palpation; no tearing occurs with palpation of the lesion. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A)
Dacryocystitis

B)
Chalazion

C)
Hordeolum

D)
Xanthelasma

 
 

37.
A 15-year-old high school sophomore presents to the emergency room with his mother for evaluation of an area of blood in the left eye. He denies trauma or injury but has been coughing forcefully with a recent cold. He denies visual disturbances, eye pain, or discharge from the eye. On physical examination, the pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light, with a visual acuity of 20/20 in each eye and 20/20 bilaterally. There is a homogeneous, sharply demarcated area at the lateral aspect of the base of the left eye. The cornea is clear. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A)
Conjunctivitis

B)
Acute iritis

C)
Corneal abrasion

D)
Subconjunctival hemorrhage

 
 

38.
A sudden, painless unilateral vision loss may be caused by which of the following?

A)
Retinal detachment

B)
Corneal ulcer

C)
Acute glaucoma

D)
Uveitis

 
 

39.
Sudden, painful unilateral loss of vision may be caused by which of the following conditions?

A)
Vitreous hemorrhage

B)
Central retinal artery occlusion

C)
Macular degeneration

D)
Optic neuritis

 
 

40.
A light is pointed at a patient’s pupil, which contracts.  It is also noted that the other pupil contracts as well, though it is not exposed to bright light.  Which of the following terms describes this latter phenomenon?

A)
Direct reaction

B)
Consensual reaction

C)
Near reaction

D)
Accommodation

 
 

41.
A patient is assigned a visual acuity of 20/100 in her left eye.  Which of the following is true?

A)
She obtains a 20% correct score at 100 feet.

B)
She can accurately name 20% of the letters at 20 feet.

C)
She can see at 20 feet what a normal person could see at 100 feet.

D)
She can see at 100 feet what a normal person could see at 20 feet.

 
 

42.
A patient presents with ear pain.  She is an avid swimmer.  The history includes pain and drainage from the left ear. On examination, she has pain when the ear is manipulated, including manipulation of the tragus.  The canal is narrowed and erythematous, with some white debris in the canal.  The rest of the examination is normal.  What diagnosis would you assign this patient?

A)
Otitis media

B)
External otitis

C)
Perforation of the tympanum

D)
Cholesteatoma

 
 

43.
A patient with hearing loss by whisper test is further examined with a tuning fork, using the Weber and Rinne maneuvers.  The abnormal results are as follows:  bone conduction is greater than air on the left, and the patient hears the sound of the tuning fork better on the left.  Which of the following is most likely?

A)
Otosclerosis of the left ear

B)
Exposure to chronic loud noise of the right ear

C)
Otitis media of the right ear

D)
Perforation of the right eardrum

 
 

44.
A college student presents with a sore throat, fever, and fatigue for several days.  You notice exudates on her enlarged tonsils.  You do a careful lymphatic examination and notice some scattered small, mobile lymph nodes just behind her sternocleidomastoid muscles bilaterally.  What group of nodes is this?

A)
Submandibular

B)
Tonsillar

C)
Occipital

D)
Posterior cervical

 
 

45.
A 21-year-old college senior presents to your clinic, complaining of shortness of breath and a nonproductive nocturnal cough. She states she used to feel this way only with extreme exercise, but lately she has felt this way continuously. She denies any other upper respiratory symptoms, chest pain, gastrointestinal symptoms, or urinary tract symptoms. Her past medical history is significant only for seasonal allergies, for which she takes a nasal steroid spray but is otherwise on no other medications. She has had no surgeries. Her mother has allergies and eczema and her father has high blood pressure. She is an only child. She denies smoking and illegal drug use but drinks three to four alcoholic beverages per weekend. She is a junior in finance at a local university and she has recently started a job as a bartender in town. On examination she is in no acute distress and her temperature is 98.6. Her blood pressure is 120/80, her pulse is 80, and her respirations are 20. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are essentially normal. Inspection of her anterior and posterior chest shows no abnormalities. On auscultation of her chest, there is decreased air movement and a high-pitched whistling on expiration in all lobes. Percussion reveals resonant lungs.
Which disorder of the thorax or lung does this best describe?

A)
Spontaneous pneumothorax

B)
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

C)
Asthma

D)
Pneumonia

 
 

46.
A 62-year-old construction worker presents to your clinic, complaining of almost a year of chronic cough and occasional shortness of breath. Although he has had worsening of symptoms occasionally with a cold, his symptoms have stayed about the same. The cough has occasional mucous drainage but never any blood. He denies any chest pain. He has had no weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. His past medical history is significant for high blood pressure and arthritis. He has smoked two packs a day for the past 45 years. He drinks occasionally but denies any illegal drug use. He is married and has two children. He denies any foreign travel. His father died of a heart attack and his mother died of Alzheimer’s disease. On examination you see a man looking slightly older than his stated age. His blood pressure is 130/80 and his pulse is 88. He is breathing comfortably with respirations of 12. His head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable. His cardiac examination is normal. On examination of his chest, the diameter seems enlarged. Breath sounds are decreased throughout all lobes. Rhonchi are heard over all lung fields. There is no area of dullness and no increased or decreased fremitus.
What thorax or lung disorder is most likely causing his symptoms?

A)
Spontaneous pneumothorax

B)
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

C)
Asthma

D)
Pneumonia

 
 

47.
A 68-year-old retired postman presents to your clinic, complaining of dull, intermittent left-sided chest pain over the last few weeks. The pain occurs after he mows his lawn or chops wood. He says that the pain radiates to the left side of his jaw but nowhere else. He has felt light-headed and nauseated with the pain but has had no other symptoms. He states when he sits down for several minutes the pain goes away. Ibuprofen, Tylenol, and antacids have not improved his symptoms. He reports no recent weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. He has a past medical history of high blood pressure and arthritis. He quit smoking 10 years ago after smoking one pack a day for 40 years. He denies any recent alcohol use and reports no drug use. He is married and has two healthy children. His mother died of breast cancer and his father died of a stroke. His younger brother has had bypass surgery. On examination you find him healthy-appearing and breathing comfortably. His blood pressure is 140/90 and he has a pulse of 80. His head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable. His lungs have normal breath sounds and there are no abnormalities with percussion and palpation of the chest. His heart has a normal S1 and S2 and no S3 or S4. Further workup is pending.
Which disorder of the chest best describes these symptoms?

A)
Angina pectoris

B)
Pericarditis

C)
Dissecting aortic aneurysm

D)
Pleural pain

 
 

48.
A 36-year-old teacher presents to your clinic, complaining of sharp, knifelike pain on the left side of her chest for the last 2 days. Breathing and lying down make the pain worse, while sitting forward helps her pain. Tylenol and ibuprofen have not helped. Her pain does not radiate to any other area. She denies any upper respiratory or gastrointestinal symptoms. Her past medical history consists of systemic lupus. She is divorced and has one child. She denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has hypothyroidism and her father has high blood pressure. On examination you find her to be distressed, leaning over and holding her left arm and hand to her left chest. Her blood pressure is 130/70, her respirations are 12, and her pulse is 90. On auscultation her lung fields have normal breath sounds with no rhonchi, wheezes, or crackles. Percussion and palpation are unremarkable. Auscultation of the heart has an S1 and S2 with no S3 or S4. A scratching noise is heard at the lower left sternal border, coincident with systole; leaning forward relieves some of her pain. She is nontender with palpation of the chest wall.
What disorder of the chest best describes this disorder?

A)
Angina pectoris

B)
Pericarditis

C)
Dissecting aortic aneurysm

D)
Pleural pain

 
 

49.
A grandmother brings her 13-year-old grandson to you for evaluation. She noticed last week when he took off his shirt that his breastbone seemed collapsed. He seems embarrassed and tells you that it has been that way for quite awhile. He states he has no symptoms from it and he just tries not to take off his shirt in front of anyone. He denies any shortness of breath, chest pain, or lightheadedness on exertion. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is in sixth grade and just moved in with his grandmother after his father was deployed to the Middle East. His mother died several years ago in a car accident. He states that he does not smoke and has never touched alcohol. On examination you see a teenage boy appearing his stated age. On visual examination of his chest you see that the lower portion of the sternum is depressed. Auscultation of the lungs and heart are unremarkable.
What disorder of the thorax best describes your findings?

A)
Barrel chest

B)
Funnel chest (pectus excavatum)

C)
Pigeon chest (pectus carinatum)

D)
Thoracic kyphoscoliosis

 
 

50.
A 55–year-old smoker complains of chest pain and gestures with a closed fist over her sternum to describe it.  Which of the following diagnoses should you consider because of her gesture?

A)
Bronchitis

B)
Costochondritis

C)
Pericarditis

D)
Angina pectoris

 
 

51.
Which of the following percussion notes would you obtain over the gastric bubble?

A)
Resonance

B)
Tympany

C)
Hyperresonance

D)
Flatness

 
 

52.
Which lung sound possesses the characteristics of being louder and higher in pitch, with a short silence between inspiration and expiration and with expiration being longer than inspiration?

A)
Bronchovesicular

B)
Vesicular

C)
Bronchial

D)
Tracheal

 
 

53.
When crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi clear with a cough, which of the following is a likely etiology?

A)
Bronchitis

B)
Simple asthma

C)
Cystic fibrosis

D)
Heart failure

 
 

54.
What is responsible for the inspiratory splitting of S2?

A)
Closure of aortic, then pulmonic valves

B)
Closure of mitral, then tricuspid valves

C)
Closure of aortic, then tricuspid valves

D)
Closure of mitral, then pulmonic valves

 
 

55.
A 25-year-old optical technician comes to your clinic for evaluation of fatigue. As part of your physical examination, you listen to her heart and hear a murmur only at the cardiac apex. Which valve is most likely to be involved, based on the location of the murmur?

A)
Mitral

B)
Tricuspid

C)
Aortic

D)
Pulmonic

 
 

56.
You are screening people at the mall as part of a health fair. The first person who comes for screening has a blood pressure of 132/85. How would you categorize this?

A)
Normal

B)
Prehypertension

C)
Stage 1 hypertension

D)
Stage 2 hypertension

 
 

57.
You are conducting a workshop on the measurement of jugular venous pulsation. As part of your instruction, you tell the students to make sure that they can distinguish between the jugular venous pulsation and the carotid pulse. Which one of the following characteristics is typical of the carotid pulse?

A)
Palpable

B)
Soft, rapid, undulating quality

C)
Pulsation eliminated by light pressure on the vessel

D)
Level of pulsation changes with changes in position

 
 

58.
You are palpating the apical impulse in a patient with heart disease and find that the amplitude is diffuse and increased. Which of the following conditions could be a potential cause of an increase in the amplitude of the impulse?

A)
Hypothyroidism

B)
Aortic stenosis, with pressure overload of the left ventricle

C)
Mitral stenosis, with volume overload of the left atrium

D)
Cardiomyopathy

 
 

59.
You are performing a cardiac examination on a patient with shortness of breath and palpitations. You listen to the heart with the patient sitting upright, then have him change to a supine position, and finally have him turn onto his left side in the left lateral decubitus position. Which of the following valvular defects is best heard in this position?

A)
Aortic

B)
Pulmonic

C)
Mitral

D)
Tricuspid
NSG 6020 Midterm Exam Study Guide

 
 

60.
You are concerned that a patient has an aortic regurgitation murmur. Which is the best position to accentuate the murmur?

A)
Upright

B)
Upright, but leaning forward

C)
Supine

D)
Left lateral decubitus

 
 

61.
Which of the following events occurs at the start of diastole?

A)
Closure of the tricuspid valve

B)
Opening of the pulmonic valve

C)
Closure of the aortic valve

D)
Production of the first heart sound (S1)

 
 

62.
Which is true of splitting of the second heart sound?

A)
It is best heard over the pulmonic area with the bell of the stethoscope.

B)
It normally increases with exhalation.

C)
It is best heard over the apex.

D)
It does not vary with respiration.

 
 

63.
Which of the following is true of jugular venous pressure (JVP) measurement?

A)
It is measured with the patient at a 45-degree angle.

B)
The vertical height of the blood column in centimeters, plus 5 cm, is the JVP.

C)
A JVP below 9 cm is abnormal.

D)
It is measured above the sternal notch.

 
 

64.
How much does cardiovascular risk increase for each increment of 20 mm Hg systolic and 10 mm Hg diastolic in blood pressure?

A)
25%

B)
50%

C)
75%

D)
100%

 
 

65.
In measuring the jugular venous pressure (JVP), which of the following is important?

A)
Keep the patient’s torso at a 45-degree angle.

B)
Measure the highest visible pressure, usually at end expiration.

C)
Add the vertical height over the sternal notch to a 5-cm constant.

D)
Realize that a total value of over 12 cm is abnormal.

 
 


NRS433 Introduction to Nursing Research – Research Critique and PICOT Statement: Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) and Total Knee Replacement (TKA) Essay

NRS433 Introduction to Nursing Research – Research Critique and PICOT Statement: Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) and Total Knee Replacement (TKA) Essay
NRS433 Introduction to Nursing Research – Research Critique and PICOT Statement: Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) and Total Knee Replacement (TKA) Essay
Evidence based practice research is forever leading to changes in procedures, treatments, and policies within the healthcare industry. With the constant flow of new research data, it is important that we are routinely updating our policies and procedures to include the best practice options for our patients. Due to the increased longevity of the geriatric population, the need for Total Knee Replacement (TKA) is steadily increasing. “Approximately 700,000 knee replacement procedures are performed annually in the US. This number is projected to increase to 3.48 million procedures per year by 2030” (Gregory M Martin, 2016). The healthcare field is developing new and inventive techniques that allow for faster and healthier recovery times for post-surgical patients. One of these technologies is the use of Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) in postoperative total knee arthroplasty.
ORDER A CUSTOM-WRITTEN PAPER NOW
Although surgeons still use CPM postoperatively, it has recently come under question rather its use makes a difference in increasing mobility and decreasing joint stiffness and swelling. When looking at the research available, there are many qualitative and quantitative research articles available proving the ineffectiveness of using CPM as a treatment option (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012). The purpose of this paper is to support the PICOT statement below by reviewing both a qualitative “To Use or Not to Use Continuous Passive Motion Post–Total Knee Arthroplasty: Presenting Functional Assessment Results in Early Recovery” and a quantitative “Aggressive continuous passive motion exercise does not improve knee range of motion after total knee arthroplasty” research article. We will also discuss how the data presented supports the need for evidence based practice changes regarding the use of CPM as a treatment option for postoperative TKA.
 PICOT Statement
Problem
Upon arriving to the postoperative orthopedic unit within a few hours after surgery, patients are encouraged to begin physical therapy and range of motion exercises to their new surgical knee. Depending upon the surgeon’s choice of treatment, they may include CPM within the physical therapy regimen. Continuous passive motion is accomplished with the use of a CPM machine. The patients postoperative knee is placed within the machine at a designated degree that is determined by the physician (Brian Hatten, 2016). The machine then moves the knee joint through a controlled range of motions intent on reducing pain, inflammation, and joint stiffness. The larger the degree angle that the patients knee can tolerate, the greater the chance of increased mobility and a faster healing process.  However, there is limited research that suggests that the use of CPM alone or in conjunction with therapy is more effective than physical activity alone in reducing these postop complications (Brian Hatten, 2016).
Specific Question
In adult postoperative total knee arthroplasty patients, how effective is continuous passive motion therapy in conjunction with physical activity in relation to pain, joint stiffness, physical mobility, and recovery time compared with physical activity alone starting at post-op day zero until discharge form acute postoperative orthopedic unit/or completion of CPM therapy?
Intervention
The use of Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) in conjunction with physical activity when completing physical therapy.
 
Comparison
The use of CPM in conjunction with physical activity compared to the use of physical activity alone when performing physical therapy in the acute post-op setting.
Outcomes/Timing
The use of CPM with physical activity does not decrease pain, joint stiffness, or recovery time, as well as increase mobility compared to physical activity alone in the use of physical therapy in the acute post-op setting. The period used for the study is from post-op day 0 – until discharge form acute postoperative orthopedic unit/or completion of CPM therapy.
Qualitative Study
Background
            CPM use in postop total knee replacements is becoming increasingly common, although the research on the benefit of its use is conflicting. The authors of the article mention that CPM “in early postoperative recovery is again questionable, with a few studies supporting and others negating the short-term benefits” (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012). Due to the questionable nature of the outcome of using CPM, research was conducted with the aim of determining the effect of CPM usage on pain, range of motion (ROM), wound healing, Suprapatellar and Calf Girth (or swelling), and functional mobility (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012). The question that the research seeks to answer is if CPM usage after postop total knee replacement increase or decreases the patient’s physical recovery time? Does the amount of time (application time applied and days of usage) that CPM is used in therapy change the results of the healing time for patients? The purpose of this research study and the questions that it seeks to answer will help to determine if continuous passive motion should still be used as a form of therapy treatment in postop total knee arthroplasty.
Method
The hypothesis of this research project was that “CPM may be helpful with initializing knee bending so that further active and passive motion training becomes easier and patient tolerates exercises better” (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012). Other research articles regarding the use and effectiveness of CPM were used as references by the authors in their own research. These articles consisted of both qualitative and quantitative data collection (books, articles, tables/figures, and research studies) with the oldest article published in 1982. Although some of the articles used were 20+ years old, they were still relevant and conducive to the authors research and study results. The authors also used the grounded theory as well as the development of graphs, tables, and diagrams to compartmentalize their research findings. This allowed for individuals reading their data to see the big picture of the results they obtained. NRS433 Introduction to Nursing Research – Research Critique and PICOT Statement: Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) and Total Knee Replacement (TKA) Essay
 
There were several methods used to obtain data within the project. Eighty-four patients were selected and divided into three groups of twenty-eight individuals, who were all scheduled for total knee replacements. Individuals were excluded from the study if they had “medical conditions or diseases that could interfere with test performance, collaboration or comprehension problems, and neuromuscular or neurodegenerative disease” (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012). Each patient received the same knee implant all placed by the same surgeon within a one year time span. The researchers understood the importance of minimizing the number of possible variables that could affect the results. The three groups of individuals were labeled no-CPM, 1-day-CPM, and 3-day-CPM. One group had physical therapy with no CPM after surgery, another group had one day of CPM with two segments of 15 minutes, and the third group had three days of CPM with two 15 minute segments each day (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012). The VAS scale (0-10 pain scale, qualitative data) was used to measure patients pain level, the TUG test (patient ability to sit, get up from sitting, walk, and turn while walking) was used to determine physical mobility, ROM was evaluated of the postop knee, wound healing was measured by dressing saturation, wound color, and suture/staple approximation, and Suprapatellar and Calf Girth (or swelling) was measured by standard tape measure (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012). Within the article the authors state that “All assessments were performed at the same time of day, that is, in the morning before subjecting the patient to physical therapy sessions” (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012).
Findings
            The results of the authors study showed no significant difference in results between the individuals who received CPM and those who did not. For pain using the VAS score there was no change in pain level between all three groups within the same time intervals, when interviewed. When assessing ROM, it progressed at the same degree level for each group and resulted in everyone within the group returning to preoperative ROM by day forty-two (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012). The TUG test values also showed no significant differences between the results within each of the three groups. For wound healing, it was shown to have a slight increase in wound drainage in the groups who received CPM. The Results showed “that at day 3, when both 1-day and 3-day-CPM groups had had equal duration of CPM application; that is, just 1 day of CPM on day 2, these 2 groups combined had 24.24% of patients with wound staining compared with only 12.12% in the control group who had not had any CPM application” (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012). Lastly the results for Suprapatellar and Calf Girth (or swelling) indicated a longer recovery time back to preoperative size in the groups receiving CPM compared to the control group. Each group resumed preoperative state by day forty-two, however “suprapatellar girth took much longer to reduce to the preoperative status in both the CPM application groups compared with the control group” (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012).  For each of the results obtained, the authors presented research studies that corresponded with the results they obtained, as well as some studies that had conflicting results to their own. In this case, the authors offered reasons for why the differing results may be present. Possible variables that could have affected the research results were type and frequency of pain medication administered as well as patients own perception of pain, motivation towards therapy, comorbidities such as diabetes that could have affected wound healing, and each patient’s height and weight affecting ROM and TUG test scores. Overall, the results from this study indicated that there is no benefit to patient’s physical mobility, pain level, wound healing, or swelling with use of the CPM compared to no CPM usage. In fact, results indicated increased swelling and wound drainage when CPM was used as a part of physical therapy. These results would suggest that the orthopedic nursing and medical boards take a closer look at the allowance of CPM usage in postop total knee arthroplasty.
Ethical Considerations
                        When it comes to ethical considerations the research essay does not specify rather an Institutional Review Board approved it. It does state however that “All participants who were eligible and agreed to participate signed an informed consent form” (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012). This indicates that all participants were aware of what the research would be used for as well as their role in the study. Each individual was assigned an envelope upon the day of their surgery that designated they would be a part of the control group or one of the groups receiving CPM therapy. The authors also mentioned that “A university-based assistant professor of statistics evaluated the data” (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012). The article however does not mention the steps it took to maintain patient privacy or the filing system in which it used.
Conclusions
            Through the data collected the answer was derived of the questions presented at the beginning of this paper. Does CPM usage after postop total knee replacement increase or decreases the patient’s physical recovery time? The results showed that the use of CPM does not significantly increase the patient’s recovery time, nor does it increase physical mobility or reduce pain. It does however lead to increased bleeding from operative site and cause a delay in the Suprapatellar and Calf Girths return to normal. This indicated a possible increase in swelling with the use of CPM. Lastly does the amount of time (application time applied and days of usage) that CPM is used in therapy change the results of the healing time for patients? There were also no significant findings to indicate that the duration of the CPM usage would change the data results. Overall the research maintained both certified and ethical planning while using both qualitative and quantitative means to achieve data collection. The article states that “After this study, we have stopped our routine practice of administering CPM in all our postoperative patients with no disadvantage” (Maniar, Baviskar, Singhi, & Rathi, 2012). This is important as the results obtained from this study have led to practice changes by surgeons within certain facilities. It is important for orthopedic nursing and medical boards alike to monitor this type of data collection as it may be of importance in the continual certification and use of CPM in the postoperative total knee arthroplasties.
 NRS433 Introduction to Nursing Research – Research Critique and PICOT Statement: Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) and Total Knee Replacement (TKA) Essay
Quantitative Study
Background
            As the geriatric population is living longer and the need for TKA is increasing it is important that we discern the beneficence of CPM and rather it is best practice to continue its use as a form of treatment. The article states “As early postoperative ROM is an important prognostic factor for the patient’s ability to walk later, it is important to achieve the best possible knee ROM while the patient is in hospital. Thus, the rehabilitation protocol in the hospital might have consider-able consequences for the patient in the longer term.” (Chen, et al., 2013). The article states a clear identification of the problem that needs to be addressed. The aim of this research was “to evaluate the effects of continuous passive motion on the range of motion, postoperative pain and life quality of patients undergoing total knee arthroplasty within six months after the operation.” (Chen, et al., 2013). The researchers seek to answer the question of rather the use of aggressive CPM in the early postoperative stage increases or decreases the patient’s physical recovery time? Does the use of CPM increase ROM in the postop knee, reduce/increase pain, and overall improve the patient’s quality of life? The questions the study seeks to answer will provide data regarding rather the use of CPM is an appropriate form of treatment for postoperative total knees.
Method
            Before beginning the study, the researchers hypothesised that “aggressive CPM in the early postoperative period would improve knee ROM, induce more pain, and improve quality of life” (Chen, et al., 2013). The study was conducted using 107 patients with degenerative osteoarthritis, who were undergoing their first TKA. Patients with rheumatoid arthritis or prosthesis in the ipsilateral hip were excluded from the study. All patients included in the study before surgery could ambulate with/without a walking aid. The surgery was complete by one of two possible qualified surgeons at Kaohsiung Medical University Hospital, and each patient was fitted with the same prosthesis and fixed with cement (Chen, et al., 2013). The information provided in the article indicates that the researchers went to great lengths to minimize outside factors and manipulation of the independent (use of CPM) and dependent (ROM, pain, mobility, overall quality of life) variables. Experimental research design was used to conduct the study. The patients were split into two separate groups. The first group (control group) would receive only basic rehabilitation protocols and the second group (experimental group) would receive basic rehabilitation protocols in addition to six hours or more of CPM a day. The CPM was set to reach seventy degrees with the first treatment, with the intent to reach one-hundred degrees depending on the individual’s ability to tolerate it. “The basic rehabilitation protocols consisted of assisted and active flexion and extension of the hip/knee, active isometric contraction of the quadriceps, straight leg raising training, walking with a high walker or crutches, and eventually climbing stairs on crutches” (Chen, et al., 2013).
Several different types of data collection were used within this study. ROM was measured with the use of a goniometer while the patient was laying supine. “Knee flexion was measured with the hip at 90-degree flexion. The goniometer swivel center was placed on the lateral side of the knee center, with one arm aligned with the greater trochanter and the other along the line running from the fibular head to the lateral malleolus of the ankle. The knee was moved to maximum flexion and the range measured in degrees.” (Chen, et al., 2013). The patients pain scores were measured using the VAS scale (0-100, 0-no pain, 100-unbearable pain). This was recorded at least once per shift. Quality of life was measured through the “modified Short Form-36” questionnaire. This questionnaire had eleven dimensions with scores ranging from 1-5 (lowest score indicating the best condition, and the highest, the worst condition). This article used both quantitative (ROM measurements) and qualitative (Pain score and quality of life) research methods within their data collection process. The data parameters, were collected by the same nurse at both the admission, during the hospital stay, two and six-week follow-up, and three and six-month postop visit (Chen, et al., 2013). The ROM, VAS, and SF-36, were all measured each day during the post-op hospital stay and at each follow up appointment. “The Mann–Whitney test was used to analyze the efficacy between study groups. Repeated analysis of variance (ANOVA) was implemented to examine the differences at various timepoints. All tests were two-sided and performed at the 5% level and analyzed with SPSS statistical software between study groups.” (Chen, et al., 2013).
Findings
            The results were obtained within a six-month period (January 2007- June 2007). In terms of ROM, the results were nearly the same between the control and experimental group. “ROM increased from 109 degrees preoperatively to 125 degrees at six months after operation in the treatment group and from 111 degrees preoperatively to 125 degrees at six months after operation in the control group” (Chen, et al., 2013). When it came to patient pain scales using the VAS score, there was no significant differences in the data obtained. “VAS decreased from 7.78 preoperatively to 0.37 at six months after operation in the treatment group and from 7.92 preoperatively to 0.21 at six months after operation in the control group” (Chen, et al., 2013).  There was also no significant difference in data obtained from the SF-36 questionnaire used to determine patient quality of life. “The SF-36 improved from 3.76 preoperatively to 1.77 at six months postoperatively in the treatment group and decreased from 3.68 preoperatively to 1.83 at six months postoperatively in the control group.” (Chen, et al., 2013).  The data obtained from the research study is written within the article and organized within tables and graphs for easier visualization and understanding. The data comes across as both cohesive and accurate.
The authors of the article were quick to point out limitations within their research. “First, this was not a randomized controlled study. Second, the rehabilitation protocol after discharge was not standardized. Third, the number of patients was not so large, which sometimes may result in less ability to tell the difference between groups” (Chen, et al., 2013). One limitation that was not pointed out within the article was the use of the same nurse to collect all data within the study. This lets the possibility of bias or miscalculations enter the data, and would have been much more proficient to have more than one individual collect and analyzed the data. The implication to nursing practice is defined within the article. The number one aspect of patients who have undergone TKA are ROM and pain reduction. The study does conclude that it does not recommend routine use of aggressive CPM for postoperative TKA. “It is important to monitor the effects of aggressive CPM on pain and ROM. The results of this study indicate that patients undergoing TKA can have less pain and better ROM and life quality six months after operation, but aggressive CPM during hospitalization does not provide additional benefits” (Chen, et al., 2013). The results of the data gathered here would be important to orthopedic nursing and medical boards to assist in the determination if the use of CPM is still best practice for treatment in postoperative TKA patients. The data collected here can lead to evidence based practice changes regarding the physical therapy treatment regimen of postoperative TKA, including the removal of CPM as best practice treatment options.     
Ethical Considerations
            It was not specified within the research article if the participants signed any type of informed consent before taking part in the study. It can be inferred however that the individuals within the study were active participants as they would have had to give consent for not only the measurement of ROM and VAS scale by the nurse, but also actively participate in answering the questionnaire associated with the SF-36. The article does mention that is was supported by the National Health Research Institute of Taiwan and Kaohsiung Medical University Hospital (Chen, et al., 2013).  It was also mentioned that each of the research authors did not have a conflict of interest in relation to the research study. The patient’s privacy also seemed to be well respected, as it was mentioned in the article that the same nurse collected the data each time, minimizing the number of individuals to access patient confidential information. NRS433 Introduction to Nursing Research – Research Critique and PICOT Statement: Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) and Total Knee Replacement (TKA) Essay.
ORDER A CUSTOM-WRITTEN PAPER NOW
Conclusions
            The data results from this study concluded that there is no significant difference in ROM, pain, and quality of life with implementation of CPM in postoperative TKA therapy. The researcher’s hypothesis “aggressive CPM in the early postoperative period would improve knee ROM, induce more pain, and improve quality of life”, was disproved by the results of the study. The answers to the question, at the beginning of this paper, were determined by the data presented. Does the use of aggressive CPM in the early postoperative stage increases or decreases the patient’s physical recovery time? The answer is that the use of aggressive CPM in TKA does increase physical recovery time, however it is not significantly different from the results obtained from just physical therapy alone. Does the use of CPM increase ROM in the postop knee, reduce/increase pain, and overall improve the patient’s quality of life? The answer again is yes, however there is no significant difference in the results of the above variables with the use of CPM compared to physical therapy alone. The use of CPM in therapy for TKA does not provide additional benefits to the patient. Overall the authors of this article do not recommend the use of CPM for treatment in TKA patients (Chen, et al., 2013). The data provided here is important to nursing research and evidence based practice. It provides nursing and physician national orthopedic boards with a greater knowledge base on rather CPM should still be considered as a certified safe and effective treatment option for total knee arthroplasties.
Evidence-based Practice Change
            Within both the qualitative and quantitative research articles provided the end results were both the same. These results both answered and supported the PICOT question above. The use of CPM in the treatment of post-op TKA does not reduce pain, swelling, joint stiffness, or increase physical mobility more substantially than physical therapy alone (Lenssen, et al., 2008). These results show that CPM therapy is neither needed nor does it provide benefits, that physical therapy alone cannot provide. The use of CPM is both time constraining and comes at a higher cost for both healthcare facilities and the patient. “Both rentals and purchased CPM machines are costly, challenge the nursing staff with time effectiveness in their daily tasks, and cause increased pain in some patients. Authors of the current literature also stated there are possibilities
for adverse effects, due to application errors, which can lead to a longer hospital stay” (University, 2015).
The evidence based research provided indicates a need to eliminate the use of CPM as a form of treatment in post-op TKA. The data can be used to show orthopedic nursing/physician boards the need to remove CPM form their choice of treatment regimen. “Decreasing the use of CPM machines creates a source of patient satisfaction as it relates to a decrease in pain, and a reduction in the need for pain medication prior to physical therapy which can reduce the instance of falls.” (University, 2015). Removing CPM as a treatment option will provide cost-effective changes for both orthopedic units within hospitals and rehab facilities. It is important that the data from both this paper and other research studies conducted on the use of CPM, be used to make evidence based practice changes to increase patient safety and health, reduce hospital stays, and increase cost effectiveness within healthcare facilities.
NRS433 Introduction to Nursing Research – Research Critique and PICOT Statement: Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) and Total Knee Replacement (TKA) Essay
 
 
References
Brian Hatten, M. (2016, may). CPM Machine Assist your early motion after knee replacement. Retrieved from Mykneeguide.com: https://www.mykneeguide.com/the-hospital/cpm-machine
Chen, L.-H., Chen, C.-H., Lin, S.-Y., Chien, S.-H., Su, J. Y., Chao-Yung Huang, H.-Y. W.-L., . . . Huang, H.-T. (2013). Aggressive continuous passive motion exercise does not improve knee. Retrieved from Journal of Clinical Nursing : http://eds.b.ebscohost.com.lopes.idm.oclc.org/eds/pdfviewer/pdfviewer?sid=5cc9803c-34c3-4521-86af-04e02436bf32%40sessionmgr101&vid=9&hid=127. NRS433 Introduction to Nursing Research – Research Critique and PICOT Statement: Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) and Total Knee Replacement (TKA) Essay
Gregory M Martin, M. (2016). Patient education: Total knee replacement (arthroplasty) (Beyond the Basics). Retrieved from UpToDate: http://www.uptodate.com/contents/total-knee-replacement-arthroplasty-beyond-the-basics. NRS433 Introduction to Nursing Research – Research Critique and PICOT Statement: Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) and Total Knee Replacement (TKA) Essay
Grove, S. K., Gray, J. R., & Burns, N. (2015). Understanding Nursing Research 6th edition . St. Louis, Missouri : Elsevier, Saunders.
Health, J. H. (2008). Managing Your Qualitative Data. Retrieved from Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Public Health: http://ocw.jhsph.edu/courses/QualitativeDataAnalysis/PDFs/Session2.pdf. NRS433 Introduction to Nursing Research – Research Critique and PICOT Statement: Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) and Total Knee Replacement (TKA) Essay.
Lenssen, T. A., Steyn, M. J., Crijns, Y. H., Waltjé, E. M., Roox, G. M., Geesink, R. J., . . . Bie, R. A. (2008). Effectiveness of prolonged use of continuous passive motion (CPM), as an adjunct to physiotherapy, after total knee arthroplasty. Retrieved from Bio Med Central: http://bmcmusculoskeletdisord.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/1471-2474-9-60
Maniar, R. N., Baviskar, J. V., Singhi, T., & Rathi, S. S. (2012). To Use or Not to Use Continuous Passive Motion Post–Total Knee Arthroplasty : Presenting Functional Assessment Results in Early Recovery. Retrieved from ScienceDirect.com: http://www.sciencedirect.com.lopes.idm.oclc.org/science/article/pii/S0883540311001689
NRS433 Introduction to Nursing Research – Research Critique and PICOT Statement: Continuous Passive Motion (CPM) and Total Knee Replacement (TKA) Essay


Order your Assignment today and save 15% with the discount code ESSAYHELP

X