May 30, | nursing, med, NURS, Paper
NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
Performance Management Interview Guidelines & Questions
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Module 3 Assignment
Performance Management System Nurse Executive Interview
Planning and Arranging the Interview
Plan for 45–60 minutes to conduct the interview. You may speak in person, by phone, via Skype, or another means that is convenient for you and the interviewee. If you record the interview, obtain the person’s permission in advance.
Confirm to your interviewee that all information obtained in the interview will be confidential. If preferred by the individual, you may identify the nurse executive and his/her healthcare organization using pseudonyms in the Assignment materials you submit.
Interview questions to guide your conversation begin on Page 3 of this document.
Note: You are required to request the individual’s signature to confirm the interview. Fill in the information on Page 2, print out the page, and obtain the nurse executive’s full signature. Scan and submit the signed Page 2 as a separate Word file with your completed NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview Assignment.
Interviewee Profile and Confirmation Signature
Name Melissa Y.
Healthcare Organization VAMC
Unit/Department Critical Care and Emergency Department
Job Title Chief
Years in Position 9years
HR-Related Responsibilities Hiring and interviewing
Relationship to You/How Identified for Interview Co-Worker
Interviewee’s Signature:
Conducting the Interview
There are 10 sets of question that follow for examining the performance management system in your interview subject’s healthcare organization. Keep the interview focus on the nurse executive’s unit (i.e., neonatal, critical care) to obtain as detailed information as possible: NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
Take notes on the responses in the spaces on the right. If you record the interview, you are still encouraged to take notes on the person’s responses, as a safeguard in case there is any problem with the recording.
Questions
Responses
1. What criteria are used to evaluate employee performance within your specific unit (i.e., neonatal, critical care) in the healthcare organization?
What are the sources of information (e.g., observation, patient satisfaction) that inform the criteria?
How are the criteria communicated to employees?
1. Notes/verbatim quotes:
2. Basically, “performance management” refers to all activities carried out to manage and improve employee performance. This includes obtaining performance information and communicating this information to the employee; supervision; coaching; rewards; training; discipline; and at times, career development.NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
Thinking about the performance management system for nurses in your specific unit, how does the system support development and retention of desired employee characteristics and behaviors?
Note: Ask for both specific examples and comments on how well the system works.
2. Notes/verbatim quotes:
NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
3. To what extent are the various components of performance management interconnected?
For example, is performance appraisal information used to help identify training needs for employees?
3. Notes/verbatim quotes:
4. What types of training are provided to enhance employee performance and retention?
4. Notes/verbatim quotes:
5. How is information collected, maintained, consolidated, and summarized on employee performance and retention?
What is the role of technology in this process, including ensuring privacy of employee information?
5. Notes/verbatim quotes:
6. Are peer reviews or multisource feedback (i.e., 360-degree feedback) used?
If it is/has been used, what are/were its strengths and drawbacks?
If it was tried and abandoned, why was it discontinued?
What is your overall assessment of the multisource feedback, and circumstances (if any) when it might be useful?
6. Notes/verbatim quotes:
7. What are two types of training you would recommend to help prepare managers to discuss performance with employees?
7. Notes/verbatim quotes:
8. What are strengths of your performance management system to recommend as exemplars?
8. Notes/verbatim quotes:
9. What weaknesses in the performance management system need to be addressed?
How do you know the nature of the weaknesses?
9. Notes/verbatim quotes:
10. What mechanisms are available, if any, for your employees to provide input on the performance management system?
10. Notes/verbatim quotes:
Analyzing and Reflecting on the Interview
· Reflect on the results of the interview, including background information on the professional, the healthcare organization, and performance management system.
· Consider how you would summarize information gained in the interview using the Performance Management System Interview Matrix Template and your Reflection paper to provide a thorough description of the performance management system.
· Consider strengths and weaknesses of the system, as described by the nurse executive and from your own analysis, and strategies and approaches you would recommend for addressing the weaknesses.
· As needed, follow up with your interviewee by phone or e-mail to clarify answers and conclusions. You may ask the nurse executive to review a draft of your interview summary to ensure that you captured the individual’s intent.
Completing the Module 3 Assignment
Part 1: Interview Matrix Summary
Complete the Performance Management System Interview Matrix Summary Template, provided in the Module 3 Learning Resources, to create a visual summary of the information gathered through your interview with a nurse manager. NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
Part 2: Interview Reflection
In a separate Word document, write 2–3 pages that reflect on the interview and your overall impressions and that include the following:
· Briefly describe the professional you interviewed, including title, years of experience, and his/her healthcare organization (e.g., size, location, special services). Note: Be mindful of your interviewee’s privacy in the details you provide.
· Explain the concept of “performance management” that guided your interview and the interviewee’s responses.
· Evaluate the healthcare organization’s performance management system for effectiveness, drawing on the nurse executive’s assessment and your own observations and conclusions.
· Describe characteristics and/or factors that stand out to you as contributing to the system’s strengths and weaknesses.
· Describe actions, strategies, or approaches you would recommend to address weaknesses in the system.
Final Submission
Submit in three separate files:
· Performance Management System Interview Matrix Summary
· Interview Reflection
· Interviewee Profile and Confirmation Signature (Page 2 from this document)
Performance Management Interview Matrix Summary
Module 3 Assignment
Performance Management System Interview Matrix Summary
Complete this matrix to summarize information from your interview with a nurse executive on the performance management system for the individual’s healthcare organization. Identify the nurse executive’s unit/department that is the specific focus of your evaluation.
Characteristics/Factors
Performance Management System for [specify nursing unit]
System Features
Employee Evaluation
Criteria
Sources of
Evaluation Criteria
How Criteria
Communicated to
Employees
How Components of
Performance Management
Are Interconnected in the
System
How Information Collected,
Maintained, Consolidated,
and Summarized on
Employee Performance
and Retention
Technology Integration
in the System
Privacy Protections
System Analysis
How System Supports
Employee Development
NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
How System Supports
Employee Retention
Use of Peer Reviews/
Multisource (360 degree)
Feedback and
Effectiveness
How Training Used to
Enhance Employee
Performance
and Retention
How Training Used to
Support Managers That
Evaluate Performance
Mechanisms for Employee
Input on the System
System Evaluation
How Well System
Supports EmployeePerformance Growth and
Development
How Well System
Supports Employee
Retention
Performance Management
System Strengths
Performance Management
System Weaknesses
Overall Conclusions
Performance Management Interview Guidelines & Questions
Module 3 Assignment
Performance Management System Nurse Executive Interview
Planning and Arranging the Interview
Plan for 45–60 minutes to conduct the interview. You may speak in person, by phone, via Skype, or another means that is convenient for you and the interviewee. If you record the interview, obtain the person’s permission in advance.
Confirm to your interviewee that all information obtained in the interview will be confidential. If preferred by the individual, you may identify the nurse executive and his/her healthcare organization using pseudonyms in the Assignment materials you submit. NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
Interview questions to guide your conversation begin on Page 3 of this document.
Note: You are required to request the individual’s signature to confirm the interview. Fill in the information on Page 2, print out the page, and obtain the nurse executive’s full signature. Scan and submit the signed Page 2 as a separate Word file with your completed Assignment.
Interviewee Profile and Confirmation Signature
Name: XX
Healthcare Organization: xxxxxxx
Unit/Department: Medical-surgical unit
Job Title: Nurse manager
Years in Position: 2 years
HR-Related Responsibilities
· Supervising nursing staff
· Make management decisions
· Implementing effective strategies
· Set work schedules
· Coordinate meetings
· Make decisions about personnel.
Relationship to You/How Identified for Interview
A colleague at my workplace
Interviewee’s Signature:
Conducting the Interview
There are 10 sets of question that follow for examining the performance management system in your interview subject’s healthcare organization. Keep the interview focus on the nurse executive’s unit (i.e., neonatal, critical care) to obtain as detailed information as possible:
Take notes on the responses in the spaces on the right. If you record the interview, you are still encouraged to take notes on the person’s responses, as a safeguard in case there is any problem with the recording.
Questions
Responses
1. What criteria are used to evaluate employee performance within your specific unit (i.e., neonatal, critical care) in the healthcare organization?
What are the sources of information (e.g., observation, patient satisfaction) that inform the criteria?
How are the criteria communicated to employees?
1. Notes/verbatim quotes:
Competency & key knowledge: Measures how well the individual is able to perform clinical skills
Time management: Evaluate how the staff manages their time
Communication: Measures communication skills
Teamwork: Measures how a staff member interacts and collaborate with others
Observation: The staff is observed when performing his/her duties by a clinical leader
Direct feedback about the performance is provided by the unit’s or department’s leader to the nurse
NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
2. Basically, “performance management” refers to all activities carried out to manage and improve employee performance. This includes obtaining performance information and communicating this information to the employee; supervision; coaching; rewards; training; discipline; and at times, career development.
Thinking about the performance management system for nurses in your specific unit, how does the system support development and retention of desired employee characteristics and behaviors?
2. Notes/verbatim quotes:
The system encourages employee engagement and professional development because when weaknesses are identified training is planned for all staff members and this improves skills and performance as well. Additionally, through the system, employee feel they are part of the organization. All these aspects promote employee retention in the organization
3. To what extent are the various components of performance management interconnected?
For example, is performance appraisal information used to help identify training needs for employees?
3. Notes/verbatim quotes:
Different elements of performance management are connected. For example, after the employee reviews, different needs are identified and then employees are trained basing on the identified weaknesses and needs
NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
4. What types of training are provided to enhance employee performance and retention?
4. Notes/verbatim quotes:
· Teamwork training where staff members are trained about teams work together effectively in order to increase engagement and collaboration and eventually improve performance and retention
· Skills trainings
· Emotional intelligence training
5. How is information collected, maintained, consolidated, and summarized on employee performance and retention?
What is the role of technology in this process, including ensuring privacy of employee information?
5. Notes/verbatim quotes:
The information is stored in a computer system that can only be accessed by authorized individuals in order to ensure privacy of the information
There is also information collected using hardcopies and this data is stored in a private shelf only accessible to authorized parties
6. Are peer reviews or multisource feedback (i.e., 360-degree feedback) used?
If it is/has been used, what are/were its strengths and drawbacks?
If it was tried and abandoned, why was it discontinued?
What is your overall assessment of the multisource feedback, and circumstances (if any) when it might be useful?
6. Notes/verbatim quotes:
360-degree feedback is used. The information is collected from the supervisor, colleagues and subordinates regarding an individual’s work-related behavior and its impact.
The main strength of 360-degree feedback is that it provides a wide perspective regarding employee performance including how an employee interacts with the co-workers, subordinates, and clients
360-degree feedback creates a culture of openness and improves self-awareness
7. What are two types of training you would recommend to help prepare managers to discuss performance with employees?
7. Notes/verbatim quotes:
Emotional intelligence and training on communication skills
8. What are strengths of your performance management system to recommend as exemplars?
8. Notes/verbatim quotes:
The performance management system promotes a culture of openness because direct feedback is provided
The system leads to employee development where the weaknesses are significantly improved after being identified
NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
9. What weaknesses in the performance management system need to be addressed?
How do you know the nature of the weaknesses?
9. Notes/verbatim quotes:
Sometimes the performance review is normally too involving and takes too much time
The weaknesses are notable because the metrics used are many and provided regularly
10. What mechanisms are available, if any, for your employees to provide input on the performance management system?
10. Notes/verbatim quotes:
The employees provide recommendations about some of the aspects that should be integrated in the performance management system
Analyzing and Reflecting on the Interview
· Reflect on the results of the interview, including background information on the professional, the healthcare organization, and performance management system.
· Consider how you would summarize information gained in the interview using the Performance Management System Interview Matrix Template and your Reflection paper to provide a thorough description of the performance management system.
· Consider strengths and weaknesses of the system, as described by the nurse executive and from your own analysis, and strategies and approaches you would recommend for addressing the weaknesses.
· As needed, follow up with your interviewee by phone or e-mail to clarify answers and conclusions. You may ask the nurse executive to review a draft of your interview summary to ensure that you captured the individual’s intent.
Completing the Module 3 Assignment
Part 1: Interview Matrix Summary
Complete the Performance Management System Interview Matrix Summary Template, provided in the Module 3 Learning Resources, to create a visual summary of the information gathered through your interview with a nurse manager. NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
Part 2: Interview Reflection
In a separate Word document, write 2–3 pages that reflect on the interview and your overall impressions and that include the following:
· Briefly describe the professional you interviewed, including title, years of experience, and his/her healthcare organization (e.g., size, location, special services). Note: Be mindful of your interviewee’s privacy in the details you provide.
· Explain the concept of “performance management” that guided your interview and the interviewee’s responses.
· Evaluate the healthcare organization’s performance management system for effectiveness, drawing on the nurse executive’s assessment and your own observations and conclusions.
· Describe characteristics and/or factors that stand out to you as contributing to the system’s strengths and weaknesses.
· Describe actions, strategies, or approaches you would recommend to address weaknesses in the system.
Final Submission
Submit in three separate files:
· Performance Management System Interview Matrix Summary
· Interview Reflection
· Interviewee Profile and Confirmation Signature (Page 2 from this document)
Performance Management Interview Matrix Summary
Module 3 Assignment
Performance Management System Interview Matrix Summary
Complete this matrix to summarize information from your interview with a nurse executive on the performance management system for the individual’s healthcare organization. Identify the nurse executive’s unit/department that is the specific focus of your evaluation.
Characteristics/Factors
Performance Management System for [specify nursing unit]
System Features
Employee Evaluation
Criteria
NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
Sources of
Evaluation Criteria
How Criteria
Communicated to
Employees
How Components of
Performance Management
Are Interconnected in the
System
How Information Collected,
Maintained, Consolidated,
and Summarized on
Employee Performance
and Retention
Technology Integration
in the System
Privacy Protections
System Analysis
How System Supports
Employee Development
How System Supports
Employee Retention
Use of Peer Reviews/
Multisource (360 degree)
Feedback and
Effectiveness
How Training Used to
Enhance Employee
Performance
and Retention
How Training Used to
Support Managers That
Evaluate Performance
Mechanisms for Employee
Input on the System
System Evaluation
How Well System
Supports EmployeePerformance Growth and
Development
How Well System
Supports Employee
Retention
Performance Management
System Strengths
Performance Management
System Weaknesses
Overall Conclusions
NURS 6221 Performance Management System Matrix Nurse Executive Interview
May 30, | nursing, med, NURS, Paper
NAPSRx Final Exam
NAPSRx Final Exam Answers
1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?
A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action
B. first by their mechanisms of action. and then by their therapeutic effects
C. first by their side effects. and then by their therapeutic effects
D. first by their toxicity. and then by their effectiveness
2. Bone marrow transplants…
A. require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells and promote white blood cell production.
B. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.
C. are always a type of stem cell therapy.
D. can help people with leukemia. a condition in which the body does not produce enough white blood cells.
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3. What does AMA stand for?
A. American Medical Academy
B. American Medical Accreditation
C. American Medical Association
D. Association of Medical Assistants
NAPSRx Final Exam 4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?
A. adverse reactions
B. contraindications
C. overdosage
D. warning/precautions
5 What is tertiary care?
A. adding medications together to achieve a better clinical effect
B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems
C. receiving medical or surgical care that does not require an overnight stay in the treatment facility
D. seeing a physician for routine checkups and general healthcare
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual?
A. brand personality
B. brand positoning
C. brand quality
D. brand values
7 What are vasodilators used to do?
A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow
B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system
C. narrow the blood vessels
D.stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster
8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant?
A. homeostasis
B. steady state
C. titration
D. tolerance
9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?
A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.
B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.
C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.
D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or spinal cord.
10. Which entities invest’s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?
A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies
B. the NIH
C. the U.S. Government
D. U.S. pharmaceutical companies
NAPSRx Final Exam 11. How are most drugs excreted?
A. via the bloodstream
B. via the heart
C. via the kidneys
D. via the skin
12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?
A. Limitations have decreased.
B. Limitations have increased significantly.
C. Limitations have increased slightly.
D. Limitations have remained about the same.
13. Answer: Branding name
14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?
A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.
B. Both drugs are generics.
C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.
D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.
15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?
A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs
B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives
C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives
D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives
16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-half’:
A. MS
B. OH
C. SM
D. SS
17 What is an internist?
A. a physician who practices internal medicine
B. a physician’s intern
C. a type of oncologist who specializes in chemotherapy
D. an internal sales representative
18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell?
A. erythrocytes
B. insulin
C. Lymphocytes
D.HCs
19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?
A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry
B. to become more familiar with their territories
C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.
D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.
20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?
A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.
B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.
C. Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs.
D. Pharmacodynamics studies the time required for a drug’s absorption.
21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA?
A. about 20%
B. about 60%
C. about 70%
D. about 95%
NAPSRx Final Exam 22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples?
A. by borrowing them from hospitals
B. by ordering them over the Internet
C. by trading them for services
D. directly from sales representatives
23. Which of the following is an example of a central value?
A. I buy Advil to show that I’m a modern consumer.
B. I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.
C. I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.
D. I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.
24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?
A. cardiology
B. psychiatry
C. urology
D. All specialists have the same number of emergency calls.
25. What affects the rate of active transport?
A. the availability of carriers. but not energy
B. the availability of energy. but not carriers
C. the availability of carriers and energy
D. neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy
26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?
A. It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.
B. It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing
C. It has been shortened to improve drug quality
D. It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.
27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?
A. patients liking their providers
B. patients using only one pharmacist
C. pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs
D. support groups
28. Which entity chooses a drug’s trade name?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the drug’s manufacturer
C. the FDA
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type?
A. multipotent
B. pluripotent
C. totipotent
D. All stem cells can develop into any cell type.
NAPSRx Final Exam 30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed.
D. It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value.
31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue?
A. cardiac and smooth
B. only skeletal
C. skeletal and cardiac
D. skeletal and smooth
32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?
A. the cardiovascular system
B. the cellular system
C. the gastrointestinal system
D. the musculoskeletal system
33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?
A. by activating synapses between different types of tissues
B. by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence
C. by inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues
D. through genetic mutation
34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products?
A. AMA guide
B. Blue Book
C. FDA drug list
D. Orange Book
35. What does subcutaneous mean?
A. beneath the intervention
B. beneath the muscle tissue
C. beneath the outer skin
D. beneath the suture
36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied?
A. ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet
B. ask staff for permission to throw away expired products in the cabinet
C. ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet
D. surreptitiously move your largest competitors’ products out of the way
37. It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
38.The FDA defines API as the active__ ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.
A. pharmaceutical
B. positive
C. potent
D. primary
39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers?
A. distributors and supply chains
B. pharmacists and NAMs
C. primary and secondary wholesale distributors
D. retailers and institutions
40.What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?
A. contraindicative indication
B. off-indication usage
C or D. off-label
41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics?
A. KN
B. PC
C. PK
D. pT
42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.
B. Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.
C. Pharmaceutical sales reps are focused.
D. Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.
44. What entity grants drug patents?
A. the FDA
B. the FDA if the drug is over-the-counter and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is prescription
C. the FDA if the drug is prescription and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is over-the-counter
D. the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office
45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?
A. formulation
B. mycoplasma
C. peptide
D. saccharide
NAPSRx Final Exam 46. What is the difference between potency and efficacy?
A. Doctors prefer more potent drugs.
B. Drug manufacturers prefer more potent drugs.
C. Potency refers to the drug’s effectiveness. while efficacy refers to its strength.
D. Potency refers to the drug’s strength, while efficacy refers to its effectiveness.
47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner?
A. a certification program
B. an associate’s degree
C. a bachelor’s degree
D. a graduate degree
48. How many names must a drug have?
A. at most three
B. at least three
C. at most five
D. at least five
49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market?
Answer: Increasing the cost of capital
50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under 65.
A. three
B. five
C. ten
D. fifteen
51. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics?
A. DEA
B. FTC
C. OIG
D.TSA
52. What is passive diffusion?
A. a type of pinocytosis
B. membrane transport via vesicles
C. the use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one
D. when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one
53. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?
A. active drugs and active placebos
B. biopharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals
C. non-prescription and nutraceuticals
D. prescription and non prescription
54. Answer: Oxytocin
55. What are all metabolites?
A. active substances
B. inactive substances
C. injections
D. products of metabolism
56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?
A. intestine
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. stomach
57. What is the medical term for swelling?
A. assay
B. edema
C. instillation
D. protease
58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?
A. be a consultant. not a rep
B. identify what your product does
C. reflect
D. visualize the power of 10
59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map?
A. abstract
B. findings
C. letter to the editor
D . methods
60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants?
A. animal lung extract
B. germicides
C. sympathomimetic drugs
D. theophylline
61. What does parenteral mean?
A. child prescriptions
B. injection
C. oral
D. tablet
62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen?
A. adjuvant
B. indicated
C. ligase
D peptide
63. If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?
A. It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.
B. It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs.
C. It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.
D. It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.
64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms?
A. active transport
B. homeostasis
C. passive diffusion
D. pinocytosis
65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists?
A. Agonists and antagonists can be used together.
B. Agonists and antagonists should not be used together.
C. Antagonist drugs activate receptors. while agonists block access to receptors.
D. Antagonists are endogenous whereas agonists are man-made.
66. What is the study of the effects and movement of drugs in the human body?
A. anatomy
B. antology
C. clinical pharmacology
D. pathology
67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?
A. that drug sample supply is too unpredictable
B. that patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality
C. that patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices
D. that they receive too many drug samples
68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power?
A. GPO
B. In-state wholesaler
C. PPO
D. RPO
69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound?
A. large molecule
B. oligonucleotide
C. orgaanism
D. small molecule
70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals?
A. By federal law. drug sampling is permitted in all hospitals.
B. By federal law. it is up to individual physicians. not the hospital.
C. Drug sampling is encouraged. but not required.
D. Drug sampling is often forbidden.
71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?
A. asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products
B. repeating a question you already asked
C. surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room
D. None of these would help you build trust with a physician.
72. What term denotes the difference between the usual effective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side effects?
A. dose-response relationship
B. margin of safety
C. the placebo effect
D. therapeutic window
73. What are excipients?
A. a type of cell receptor to which antagonists bind to decrease the effects of the body’s natural agonists
B. another term for generic equivalents
C. sites of action besides the target sites of action
D. the inert ingredients in a drug formulation
74. What is another term for the AWP?
A. dock-to-dock price
B. float price
C. list price
D. non-stock price
75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent?
A. to induce labor
B. to make the urine more alkaline
C. to supplement oral food intake
D. to treat hyperthyroidism
76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?
A. Canada
B. Japan
C. Spain
D. none of these
77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach?
A. to be more wholly absorbed by the stomach
B. to minimize absorption by the intestine
C. to minimize nausea
D. to pass through the stomach more quickly
NAPSRx Final Exam 78. What is one factor that differentiates community health centers from hospitals?
A. Community health center formularies are more restrictive.
B. Community health centers have higher reimbursement rates.
C. Newer brand name drugs are easier to access at community health centers.
D. None of these
79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit?
A. Doctors donate their unused drug samples to charities.
B. Doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not afford it.
C. It allows patients to try out different prescription medications before consulting with physicians.
D. Drug sampling provides a social benefit in all of these ways.
80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart?
A. auscultation
B. cardioversion
C. catheterization
D. echocardiography
81. What do enteric coatings do?
A. facilitate vomiting
B. help drugs dissolve in the stomach
C. help drugs enter the bloodstream more quickly
D. prevent dissolution in the stomach
82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 7 years
D. 15 years
83. What do National Account Managers do?
A. act as the sales reps’ primary point of contact with the rest of the corporation
B. manage the FDA approval process
C. negotiate contracts with MCOs and PBMs
D. sell only to pharmacies
84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary?
A. Pharmacies may choose whether to return the drug or dispense it.
B. The FDA has determined that the drug is perfectly safe. but ineffective.
C. The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
D. The manufacturer has recalled the product without negotiating with the FDA.
85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase?
A. Phase I
B. Phase III
C Phase IV
D. Phase IX
86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug’s safety and effectiveness first tested in the target group?
A. preclinical
B. Phase I
C. Phase II
D. Phase III
NAPSRx Final Exam 87. How do antacids work?
A. by increasing blood flow to the stomach
B. by lowering gastric pH
C. by raising gastric pH
D. by suppressing cholesterol formation by the liver
88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Caterers
B. Pharcists
C. receptionists
D. travel time
89. What happens when equilibrium is reached?
A. equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions
B. molecules stop moving
C. the concentration gradient decreases indefinitely
D. the concentration gradient increases indefinitely
90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy?
A. autologous antigens
B. liposomes
C. naked DNA
D. viruses
91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?
A. margin fee
B. recharge
C. standard fee
D. upcharge
92. What is the difference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction?
A. Chronic reactions are exaggerated. whereas delayed reactions are idiosyncratic.
B. Chronic reactions occur only during treatment. whereas delayed reactions only occur during withdrawal.
C. Chronic reactions persist for a long time. whereas delayed reactions take some time to develop.
D. Delayed reactions are always idiosyncratic. but chronic reactions are not.
93 What is clinical effect?
A. federally funded research condition
B. the effect of maximum dosage
C. the response produced by a medication
D. the use of treatment drugs in chemotherapy
94. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance?
A. a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day
B. a patient taking a drug. but only because it has been court-mandated
C. a pharmacist dispensing a generic equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name
D. a physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the clinical studies on it
95. What is the average circulation time of blood?
A. about a minute
B. about 5 minutes
C. about 5 to 10 minutes depending on the patient’s age and health conditions
D. about 10 minutes
96. What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?
A. In pharmaceutical sales. the decisions-makers. consumers. and payers are usually the same entity.
B. Pharmaceutical selling takes less time because doctors are so busy.
C. Representatives do NOT sell to the end user of the product.
D. Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product.
97. From what types of entities do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs?
A. brokerages
B. buying clubs
C. manufacturers
D. physicians
98.What is the Office of the Inspector General (01G)?
A. a department in pharmaceutical companies
B. an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services
C. an arm of the European Medicines Agency D an arm of the FDA
99. What are doctors required to consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug?
A. quantity of life over quality of life
B. that no drugs with adverse effects should ever be used
C. the inferiority of OTC drugs
D. the severity of the disorder being treated and the effect it has on the patient’s quality of life
NAPSRx Final Exam 100. Which entity assigns a new drug its generic names?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the Food and Drug Administration
C. the United States Adopted Name Council
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
101. Drugs can be used days beyond their expiration date.
A. 2-7 days. depending on the most current monograph.
B. 2-90 days. depending on state laws
C. 7-90 days. depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.
D. none of these
102. What is necessary for a drug to be excreted extensively via the kidneys?
A. The drug must be water-soluble. and not bind too tightly to proteins in the bloodstream.
B. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and be non-water-soluble.
C. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and bind well to proteins in the bloodstream.
D. The drug must not be water-soluble.
103. Which organization or individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study?
A. clinical research organization
B. investigator
C. researcher
D. sponsor
104. The name describes the atomic or molecular structure of a drug.
A. chemical
B. generic
C. pharmaceutical
D. proprietary
105. Under PhRMA Code, is it acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician and the physician’s spouse to a fundraising dinner?
A. acceptable if only the physician attends
B. acceptable if only the physician attends. and the total is under $100
C. acceptable if the total is under $100
D. unacceptable
106. The Hatch-Waxman Act is considered the most significant drug-related affecting the pharmaceutical industry since 1962.
A. experiment
B. legislation
C. process
D. research
107. What term denotes the the extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the body?
A. caliber
B. chronicity
C. indication
D. toxicity
108. What issue has MOST encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?
A. a weaker patients’ rights movement
B. lack of insurance coverage
C. less reliance on the Internet
D. proliferation of herbal remedies
109. What is the degree to which a medication produces a therapeutic effect?
A. diffusion
B. efficacy
C. protease
D. vector
110. What is the most important benefit of electronic prescribing?
A. Choice
B. cost
C. inquiries
D. safety
111. When does the FDA regulate generic drugs?
A. only if they are branded generics
B. only if they have been contested
C. always
D never
NAPSRx Final Exam 112. Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose?
A. preclinical trials
B. Phase II trials
C. Phase III trials
D. Phase IV trials
113. What is an advantage of inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines?
A. Inactivated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.
B. Inactivated vaccines have a higher probability of eliciting the desired immunological response.
C. Inactivated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.
D. Inactivated vaccines only require a single dose.
114. Which medical term denotes a low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow?
A. potentiation
B. ischemia
C. TID
D. titration
115. What are the two main types of prescription drug marketing?
A. (1) marketing to insurance companies. and (2) marketing to pharmacies
B. (1) PBM marketing. and (2) marketing to governments
C. (1) professional physician promotions. and (2) direct-to-consumer advertising
D. (1) publicly-funded marketing. and (2) physician-funded marketing
116. What is the site of delivery for subcutaneous injections?
A. fatty tissue beneath the surface of the skin
B. lymphatic tissue
C. muscle tissue
D. the stomach, via a special type of needle
117. What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?
A. adverse effects
B. mechanism of action
C. pharmacokinetics
D. the proprietary name and the established name
118. What is the study of a medication’s effects as it travels through the body?
A. pharmacodynamics
B. pharmacogenetics
C. pharmacogenomics
D. pharmacokinetics
119. Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the
A. closing of the sale
B. first time advantage
C. likeability factor
D. power of knowledge
120. What is penicillin’s primary mechanism of action?
A. It disturbs bacterial cell wall synthesis.
B It inhibits the production of viruses.
C. It prevents proper DNA replication.
D. It sends a messenger to the bone marrow to produce extra white blood cells
121. According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?
A. Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have been made available as OTCs.
B. Managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient-centered approaches.
C. The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized attention.
D. There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.
122. How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap?
A. It encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare.
B. It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.
C. It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.
D. all of these
123. What do immunosuppressive agents do?
A. decrease risk of infection
B. increase risk of infection
C. reduce the risk of rejection of foreign bodies
D. treat psoriasis
124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors?
A. antineoplastics
B. cardiovascular agents
C. CNS agents
D. mitotic inhibitors
125. Which of the following means outside of the living body?
A. en vivo
B. ex vitro
C. ex vivo
D. intra vivo
126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare’s contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy?
A. $5-10 billion
B. $40-50 billion
C. $800-900 billion
D.$ 2-5 trillion
128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring?
A. All side effects are determined during clinical trials.
B. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they are severe or life-threatening.
C. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they have been proven in clinical studies.
D. The FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises.
NAPSRx Final Exam 129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication?
A. cell tolerance
B. cross-tolerance
C. indicated tolerance
D. minimized tolerance
130. Patents expire __ years from the date of filing.
A. ten
B. fifteen
C. twenty
D. thirty
131. After a trade-name drug’s patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?
A. only under the branded generic name
B. only under the generic name
C. only under the original trade name
D. under the original trade name or a generic name
132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?
A. It causes no serious adverse effects.
B. It causes no side effects.
C. It has an active placebo.
D. It is more effective and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.
133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest?
A. doctors
B. lawyers and office managers
C. pharmaceutical companies
D. sales representatives
134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is
A. alternative licensure
B. equivalence practice
C. necessitated substitution
D. pharmaceutical substitution
135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety?
A. Its safety levels have yet to be adequately verified.
B. Its safety varies widely among different types of patients.
C. There is a greater chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
D. There is a lower chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for effective dose?
A. DE
B. ED
C. EFD
D. eff D
137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo?
A. to assess patients’ expectations
B. to assess the drug’s effectiveness
C. to assess the professionalism of the study staff
D. to assess the subjects’ demographics
138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original drug.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value?
A. I drink Coca-Cola because I am a citizen of the world.
B. I drink Coca-Cola because I like looking like a traditionalist.
C. I drink Coca-Cola because I like the taste.
D. I drink Coca-Cola because it is an international brand.
140. Where are most drugs metabolized?
A. interstitial spaces
B. liver
C. stomach
D . the bloodstream
141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?
A. Selection criteria should be well-supported by documented evidence.
B. Studies should make every attempt to conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical attention.
C. Subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives.
D. all of these
NAPSRx Final Exam 142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name?
A. Dear Personnel Department.
B. Dear Sir or Madam,
C. Dear Sir
D.To Whom It May Concern.
143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. asking for feedback
B. giving the doctors anything they ask for to prescribe your products
C. keeping your market share goals the same each term
D. not bothering busy doctors in hospitals
144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information?
A. diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat
B. the drug’s active metabolites
C. the drug’s recommended usual dosage
D. the drug’s usual dosage range
145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume?
A. conditioning
B. deciling
C. detailing
D. private labeling
146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA?
A. It is a generic that has already been approved as a branded drug.
B. It is a new drug.
C. It is less expensive than what is currently on the market.
D. It treats patients with a serious. life-threatening condition.
147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets
